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The only achiral amino acid
a.Glycine
b.Lysine
c.Leucine
d.Valine
e.Aspartate
A
Amino acid/s that are strictly ketogenic include
a.Glycine
b.Lysine
c.Phenylalanine
d.Proline
e.Arginine
B
Amino acid/s that react with ninhydrin to produce a blue-purple product
a.Glycine
b.Arginine
c.Proline
d.Two of the choices
e.All of the choices
D
Trypsin predominantly cleaves proteins at the carboxyl side of this/these amino acid/s
a.Glycine
b.Arginine
c.Proline
d.Two of the choices
e.All of the choices
B
Amino acid/s that are essential;
a.Tyrosine
b.Arginine
c.Proline
d.Two of the choices
e.All of the choices
B
Which of the following statements are true?
I. The primary structure of a protein is greatly stabilized by the H-bonds present
II. The two most common secondary structure of proteins are the alpha helices and beta pleated sheets
III. The tertiary structure is described as the complete three-dimensional structure of a protein
IV. Hemoglobin is an example of a quaternary structure of a protein that consists of four peptide sub-units bound to a ferric ion
a.I, II
b.II, III
c.III, IV
d.I, II, III
e.I, II, III, IV
B
Which of the following is true?
I. Simple proteins are proteins that on hydrolysis will yield only amino acids.
II. Conjugated proteins are proteins that on hydrolysis will yield amino acids and other biomolecules such as nucleic acids or lipids.
III. Derived proteins are proteins that came from pre-existing proteins through physical or chemical means.
IV. Histones are conjugated proteins that packages DNA and on hydrolysis yields amino acids and nucleic acids.
a.I, II
b.I, II, III
c.I, II, III, IV
d.I, III, IV
e.II, III, IV
B
Which of the following is not true?
I. Apoenzyme is the active form of an enzyme that happens upon binding of a cofactor to the holoenzyme.
II. Inorganic cofactors are also called coenzymes.
III. Manganese is the cofactor of hexokinase, an enzyme that produces glucose-6-phosphate from glucose.
IV. Vitamins can also function as cofactors.
a.I, II, III, IV
b.I, II, III
c.I, II
d.I
e.None of the choices
D
Which of the following is true?
I. SDS-PAGE is a variant of gel electrophoresis that uses SDS to isolate proteins.
II. SDS or Sodium dodecyl sulfate, a surfactant, covers the proteins hereby conferring a charge-to-mass ratio.
III. SDS gives the proteins a negative charge
IV. An electric current is applied across the gel where the proteins will migrate to the anode.
a.I, II
b.I, II, III
c.II, III
d.II, III, IV
e.I, II, III, IV
E
Which of the following is true?
I. Histidine has an isoelectric point of 4.59 and thereby exists in zwitterion form at physiologic pH making it the best residue to interact with substrates.
II. Proline contains a secondary amino group produces kinks in the alpha helix structure.
III. In an oxidizing environment, the amino acid cysteine binds with itself to produce cystine.
IV. Glutathione is represented as GSH is composed of three amino acids - glutamate, cysteine, and histidine.
a.I, IV
b.II, III
c.I, II, III
d.II, III, IV
e.I, II, III, IV
B
This can measure how well a substrate can bind to the enzyme and is the concentration of substrate which permits the enzyme to achieve half Vmax.
a.Affinity
b.Concentration
c.Substrate Power
d.Michaelis Menten Constant
e.None of the above
D
Monosaccharides such as hexoses can be subjected to various reactions such as oxidation. Identify which of the following statements are true:
I. Glucose subjected to a weak oxidizing agent will produce gluconic acid.
II. Glucose subjected to a strong oxidizing agent will produce glucaric acid.
III. Galactose subjected to a strong oxidizing agent will produce mucic acid.
IV. Mannose subjected to a strong oxidizing agent with an aldehyde protecting group will produce mannuronic acid.
a.I, II, IV
b.II, III, IV
c.I, III, IV
d.I, II, III
e.I, II, III, IV
E
Monosaccharides can be represented through Fischer projection and Haworth projection. Identify which of the following statements are true:
I. On a Fischer projection, the penultimate carbon determines whether a molecule is a D- or L- molecule.
II. L- sugars are depicted with their hydrogen molecule on the penultimate carbon on the left.
III. Haworth projections are used to depict cyclic monosaccharides.
IV. Alpha anomers of sugars have their hydroxyl groups drawn upward.
a.I, III
b.II, IV
c.I, II, III
d.II, III, IV
e.I, II, III, IV
A
Fehling's test is usually used to determine reducing sugars, which among the choices is not a reducing sugar.
a.Trehalose
b.Maltose
c.Sucrose
d.Two of the above
e.All of the above
D
Mucic acid test is a selective test for what sugar?
a.Glucose
b.Mannose
c.Galactose
d.Arabinose
e.Ribose
C
Omega-3 fatty acid
a.Linoleic Acid
b.Oleic Acid
c.Arachidonic Acid
d.Linolenic Acid
e.None of the above
D
Phospholipids. Which of the following is not true?
I. Phosphatidic acid contains no head group
II. Cephalin contains choline as its head group coupled to phosphatidic acid
III. Cardiolipin contains two units of phosphatidic acid coupled to glycerol
IV. Some phospholipids can function as secondary messengers
a.I
b.II
c.III
d.IV
e.NOTA
B
An essential fatty acid
a.Arachidonic acid
b.Linoleic Acid
c.Oleic Acid
d.Two of the above
e.None of the above
B
Esters of primarily saturated fatty acids bounded to an alcohol, glycerol.
a.Fats
b.Oils
c.Waxes
d.Two of the above
e.None of the above
A
Which of the following is not true?
I. Krabbe disease is a rare and often fatal lysosomal storage caused by the deficiency of an enzyme called beta-glucosidase.
II. Gaucher disease is a genetic disorder in which a sphingolipid accumulates in the body due to the deficiency of beta-galactosidase.
III. Hexosaminidase-A is deficient on both Tay-Sachs disease and Sandhoff's disease with the former also deficient in hexosaminidase-B.
IV. Farber disease is an X-linked inherited disorder due to mutations leading to the deficiency of alpha-galactosidase enzyme.
a.I
b.III
c.I, II
d.I, II, III
e.I, II, III, IV
E
Artemisinin is a sesquiterpene.Sesquiterpenes contain 1.5 isoprene units.
a.The first statement is correct whilst the second statement is incorrect
b.The first statement is incorrect whilst the second statement is correct
c.Both statements are correct
d.Both statements are incorrect
A
Polymerase chain reaction is a method widely used in molecular biology. Which of the following is true?
I. DNA denatures at 72 degrees Celsius
II. Primers anneal to complementary sites at 55 degrees Celsius
III. At 94 degrees Celsius, Taq polymerase begins to attach nucleotides to a DNA template
IV. The technique involving these three steps is used for in vitro mass synthesis of DNA.
a.I, II, III
b.I, II, IV
c.I, III
d.II, IV
e.I, II, III, IV
D
Which of the following statements are true?
I. Z-DNA is the sole right-handed form of the double helix
II. A-DNA and B-DNA are both left-handed forms of the double helix
III. Z-DNA double helix has a higher diameter than B-DNA
IV. B-DNA forms have the hydrophobic parts inside the helix enclosed by its hydrophilic part
a.I, II, III, IV
b.I, II
c.III
d.IV
e.III, IV
D
Which of the following statements are true?
I. B-DNA is the most predominant form of DNA in the cells
II. A-DNA favors dehydrating conditions
III. B-DNA base pairs are perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of the helix
IV. Z-DNA is a dinucleotide repeating unit due to alternating sugar residues
a.I, II
b.III, IV
c.I, II, IV
d.I, II, III
e.I, II, III, IV
E
This enzyme creates a replication fork turning the DNA into a Y-shaped molecule.
a.Helicase
b.Primase
c.DNA polymerase
d.DNA ligase
e.DNA gyrase
A
This enzyme attaches primers to the 3'-end of the strands.
a.Helicase
b.Primase
c.DNA polymerase
d.DNA ligase
e.DNA gyrase
B
This enzyme attaches nucleotides to the strand.
a.Helicase
b.Primase
c.DNA polymerase
d.DNA ligase
e.DNA gyras
C
This enzyme stabilizes the DNA strand and prevents it from breaking
a.Helicase
b.Primase
c.DNA polymerase
d.DNA ligase
e.DNA gyrase
E
This enzyme creates a unified strand by joining different lagging strands
a.Helicase
b.Primase
c.DNA polymerase
d.DNA ligase
e.DNA gyrase
D
This type of DNA polymerase is essential for removing the RNA primers and replacing it with nucleotides.
a.DNA polymerase I
b.DNA polymerase II
c.DNA polymerase III
d.DNA polymerase IV
e.DNA polymerase V
A
Which of the following is true?
I. The phosphate group links two nucleotides through the 3' to 5' phosphodiester bond.
II. RNA differs from DNA in its sugar moiety specifically at the 2' position, where it is missing a hydroxyl group.
III. Uracil is a nucleotide only found in RNA strands.
IV. Xylose, a pentose and the 3-epimer of ribose, can be used as a sugar-substitute for nucleic acids.
a.I, III
b.III
c.I, III, IV
d.II, III, IV
A
Which of the following is not true?
I. Splicing is a post-transcriptional process that transforms the premature mRNA into a mature MRNA by leaving only the exons and cleaving the introns.
II. Introns are the coding sections of an RNA transcript while the exons are the non-coding sections.
III. The 3'-cap is a specially altered nucleotide that provides stability to the mRNA and prevents degradation.
IV. At the 5' end of the mRNA, long chain of adenine bases are added to hinder the mRNA degradation.
a.I, II, III, IV
b.II, III, IV
c.I, II
d.I
e.NOTA
B
Total amount of ATP invested in Glycolysis?
a.2
b.3
c.4
d.5
e.7
A
Other name for glycolysis.
a.Ornithine cycle
b.Embden Meyerhof Cycle
c.HMP shunt
d.TCA cycle
e.Two of the above
B
These enzymes are utilized in both glycolysis and gluconeogenesis
a.Hexokinase
b.Aldolase
c.Pyruvate carboxylase
d.Two of the above
e.All of the above
B
The enzyme that splits the glucose into two three-carbon containing sugars
a.Phosphoglucoisomerase
b.Aldolase
c.Enolase
d.Pyruvate kinase
e.Phosphoglycerate kinase
B
This enzyme facilitates the rate limiting step of glycolysis
a.Hexokinase
b.Phosphofructokinase
c.G3P dehydrogenase
d.Pyruvate kinase
B
Which are the correct statements?
I. Cytosolic malate dehydrogenase catalyzes the reaction of oxaloacetate and NAD+ to malate and NADH.
II. Oxaloacetate in the mitochondrial matrix is converted to aspartate by the mitochondrial aspartate aminotransferase.
III. Glutamate from the cytosol will be imported as the aspartate is exported and consequently transformed into alpha keto-glutarate.
IV. Aspartate in the cytosol is then converted to oxaloacetate.
a.I, II, III
b.II, III, IV
c.I, III, IV
d.I, II, IV
e.I, II, III, IV
B
Which are the correct statements?
I. The glycerol phosphate (GP) shuttle is more frequently found in the body compared to the malate-aspartate (MA) shuttle
II. The conversion of glycerol phosphate to dihydroxyacetone phosphate GP dehydrogenase is done through reduction of one molecule of NAD to NADH.
III. The GP shuttle will produce less overall energy than the MA shuttle
IV. Electrons produced are transferred to Coenzyme Q which then transfers the electrons to complex IV.
a.I, III
b.II, IV
c.I, II, III
d.II, III
e.II, III, IV
f.II, III, IV
D
Pyruvate under anaerobic conditions will be converted to lactate by what enzyme
a.Pyruvate decarboxylase
b.Lactate dehydrogenase
c.Pyruvate dehydrogenase
d.Pyruvate kinase
e.None of the above
B
GSD 6
a.Pompe's
b.Hers
c.McArdle's
d.Tarui's
e.Von Gierke's
B
Which of the following statements are FALSE?I. Citrate synthase is an enzyme that catalyzes the production of citric acid, a six-carbon molecule.
II. Succinate is converted to fumarate by the Complex-2 yielding a molecule of FADH2.
III. Production of succinate from succinyl-CoA yields a GTP molecule.
IV. It occurs in the cytosol.
a.I, II, III
b.II, III, IV
c.I, II
d.III
e.IV
E
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
I. Krebs cycle is also known as TCA or CAC.
II. It is an amphibolic biochemical pathway.
III. In each turn of the cycle, there will be three molecules of NADH and a molecule of FADH2 produced.
IV. Another product of each turn of the cycle is a single molecule of CO2..
a.I
b.II
c.III
d.IV
e.None of the above
D
Which of the following is not true regarding Fatty acid metabolism?
I. Fatty Acid Synthesis occurs in the mitochondria.
II. Fatty acid breakdown is a metabolic process that occurs in the cytosol by which fatty acid molecules are broken down.
III. Fatty acid breakdown is called beta oxidation as the bond between C2 and C3 of the fatty acid.
IV. Beta oxidation involves the sequential removal of acetyl-CoA and production of a shortened acyl-CoA, with concurrent reduction of one FAD and one NAD+.
a.I, II
b.III, IV
c.I, III, IV
d.I, II, III
e.II, III, IV
A
This biochemical intermediate is the immediate precursor of aromatic amino acids: phenylalanine, tryptophan and tyrosine (F Y W).
a.Anthranilic acid
b.Prephenic acid
c.Chorismic acid
d.Shikimic acid
e.E4P
C
This biochemical pathway is important to control oxidative drugs such as methyldopa and primaquine.
a.Pentose Phosphate Pathway
b.Urea Cycle
c.Beta Oxidation
d.Porphyrin Metabolism
e.Nitrogen Metabolism
A
This condition is associated with the patient's inability to metabolize branched chain amino acids.
a.Alkaptonuria
b.Phenylketonuria
c.Maple Syrup Disease
d.Black Urine Disease
e.Two of the above
C
What is the R group of Histidine?
a.Imidazole
b.Indole
c.Guanidino group
d.Pyrrole
e.Phenol
A
This amino acid produced is important in collagen cross-linking
a.Alanine
b.Proline
c.Histidine
d.Arginine
e.Glutamate.
B
Deficiency of this vitamin leads to glossitis.
a.Vitamin B2
b.Vitamin B3
c.Vitamin B5
d.Vitamin B7
e.Vitamin B12
A
Arrange the steps of preparation of crude drugs:
I. Curing
II. Collection
III. Harvesting
IV. Drying
V. Packaging
VI. Garbling
a.II-I-VI-IV-III-V
b.II-III-IV-VI-I-V
c.II-III-IV-I-VI-V
d.II-VI-IV-III-I-V
e.II-IV-VI-I-III-V
C
Function of Steroids:
I. Molting of insects
II. Development of the reproductive system
III. Anti-inflammation
IV. Pigmentation
V. Somnolence
a.I, II
b.I, III
c.I, II, III
d.I, II, IV
e.I, II, III, IV, V
C
This is the liquid remaining of milk after it is subjected to renin treatment.
a.Whey
b.Coagulum
c.Cream
d.Skim Milk
e.Buttermilk
A
This monosaccharide is the 2 epimer of glucose - mannose
a.Galactose
b.Mannose
c.Fructose
d.Sucrose
e.Trehalose
B
Which of the following statements is/are true?I. Inulin is a homoglycan of fructose formerly used to determine GFR.
II. Cellulose, a polysaccharide of glucose, is the most abundant organic compound in the terrestrial environment.
III. Chitin can be found in the cell membranes of fungi and protozoa to maintain stability and keep the membrane fluidity.
IV. Dextran can be used as a plasma expander.
a.I, II
b.I, III
c.I, II, III
d.I, II, IV
e.I, II, III, IV
D
L-threose and D-threose
a.Enantioners
b.Anomers
c.Epimers
d.Not related
A
L-threose and L-erythrose
a.Enantioners
b.Anomers
c.Epimers
d.Not related
C
D-glucose and D-galactose
a.Enantioners
b.Anomers
c.Epimers
d.Not related
C
Alpha-mannopyranose and beta-mannopyranose
a.Enantioners
b.Anomers
c.Epimers
d.Not related
B
L-sorbose and D-sorbose
a.Enantioners
b.Anomers
c.Epimers
d.Not related
A
Sinalbin and sinigrin are isothiocyanate glycosides. Sinigrin acted upon with myrosinase produces acrinyl isothiocyanate
a.The first statement is correct whilst the second statement is incorrect
b.The first statement is incorrect whilst the second statement is correct
c.Both statements are correct
d.Both statements are incorrect
A
Vitamin P
a.Rutin and Hesperetin
b.Rutin, Quercetin and Hesperidin
c.Quercetin, Diosmin, Naringen
d.Rutin and Hesperidin
e.Rutin and Quercetin
D
True about hydrolysable tannins:
I. Hydrolyzes to pyrogallol
II. Decolorizes potassium permanganate
III. Produces a leather type called bloom
IV. Does not give a positive result with bromine water
a.I, II
b.I, III
c.I, II, III
d.I, II, IV
e.I, II, III, IV
C
The twigs of Cynips tinctoria hold gallic and egallic acid.
This is obtained when the insect, Quercus infectoria¸ bore its holes in the twigs to deposit its ova.
a.The first statement is correct whilst the second statement is incorrect
b.The first statement is incorrect whilst the second statement is correct
c.Both statements are correct
d.Both statements are incorrect
D
Which of the following is a semi drying oil?
a.Sesame oil
b.Coconut oil
c.Corn Oil
d.2 of the above
e.All of the above
D
Hydrogenated vegetable oil (vs. animal oil)
a.Serger test
b.Halphen test
c.Baudoin test
d.Saponification cloud test
A
Cottonseed oil
a.Serger test
b.Halphen test
c.Baudoin test
d.Saponification cloud test
B
Beeswax
a.Serger test
b.Halphen test
c.Baudoin test
d.Saponification cloud test
D
Sesame Oil
a.Serger test
b.Halphen test
c.Baudoin test
d.Saponification cloud test
C
This is an anti-fungal agent that is produced from the pyrolysis of castor oil.
a.Azelaic Acid
b.Undecylic Acid
c.Undecylenic Acid
d.None of the above
B
The non-gelling component of carrageenan.
a.lambda
b.kappa
c.iota
d.phi
A
It is a glycoside-containing drug used to mask the bitter taste of quinine.
a.Mastic
b.Eriodictyon
c.Licorice
d.Two of the above
C
Eucalyptus
a.Aldehyde
b.Hydrocarbon
c.Phenolic ether
d.Ester
e.Oxide
E
Clove
a.Phenolic ether
b.Alcohol
c.Phenol
d.Ester
e.Aldehyde
C
Oil of Wintergreen
a.Hydrocarbon
b.Phenolic ether
c.Oxide
d.Ester
e.Aldehyde
D
Nutmeg
a.Alcohol
b.Phenol
c.Hydrocarbon
d.Ketone
e.Phenolic ether
E
Spearmint
a.Aldehyde
b.Ketone
c.Hydrocarbon
d.Alcohol
e.Ester
B
The method of obtaining volatile oil that utilizes sharp tiny projections where a specimen can be rolled.
a.Écuelle à piquer
b.Enzymatic Action
c.Enfleurage
d.Distillation
e.None of the above
A
The pathologic product of sperm whales used as base notes for perfume.
a.Spermaceti
b.Ambergris
c.Musk
d.Civet
e.None of the above
B
Jalap
a.Resin
b.Oleoresin
c.Oleogum resin
d.Balsam
A
Mastic
a.Resin
b.Oleoresin
c.Oleogum resin
d.Balsam
A
Devil's Dung
a.Resin
b.Oleoresin
c.Oleogum resin
d.Balsam
C
Storax
a.Resin
b.Oleoresin
c.Oleogum resin
d.Balsam
D
Balsam of Copaiba
a.Resin
b.Oleoresin
c.Oleogum resin
d.Balsam
B
Which of the following is a solid alkaloid?
a.Coniine
b.Berberine
c.Nicotine
d.None of the above
B
Which is true about alkaloidal reagents
I. Wagner's Reagent is composed of Potassium Mercuric Iodide
II. Scheibler's Reagent is composed of Phosphotungstic acid
III. Sonnencheim's Reagent is composed Phosphomolybdic acid
IV. Bouchdart's Reagent is composed of Iodine in Potassium Iodide.
a.I, II, III
b.I, III, IV
c.I, II, IV
d.II, III, IV
e.I, II, III, IV
D
Parenchymal Cells
a.Lamiaceae
b.Pinaceae
c.Piperaceae
d.Rosaceae
e.Apiaceae
C
Glandular Trichomes
a.Lamiaceae
b.Pinaceae
c.Piperaceae
d.Rosaceae
e.Apiaceae
A
Vittae
a.Lamiaceae
b.Pinaceae
c.Piperaceae
d.Rosaceae
e.Apiaceae
E
Schizogenous Ducts
a.Lamiaceae
b.Pinaceae
c.Piperaceae
d.Rosaceae
e.Apiaceae
B
Which of the following are true?
I. Tropane alkaloids are derived from the amino acid threonine
II. Quinoline alkaloids are derived from tyrosine
III. Isoquinoline alkaloids are derived from tyrosine
IV. Indole alkaloids are derived from tryptophan
a.I, II
b.III, IV
c.I, III
d.II, IV
e.I, IV
B
The following are examples of stereoptenes, EXCEPT:
a.Methyl Salicylate
b.Menthol
c.Camphor
d.Thymol
e.Anethole
A
The following are true about pectin EXCEPT:
I. Young/unripe fruits have protopectin
II. Old/over-ripe fruits have pectinic acid
III. The reason why pectin swells is because of mannuronic acid
IV. Pectin is used as an antidiarrheal agent
a.I
b.II
c.III
d.IV
e.None of the above
C
The lowest quality olive oil
a.Technical Grade
b.Tournant Oil
c.Sulfur Grade
d.Second Grade
e.First Grade
A
It is one of the medicinal plants approved by DOH to be used as an analgesic.
a.Ulasimang bato
b.Akapulko
c.Sambong
d.Yerba Buena
e.Tsaang Gubat
D