Anatomical Path Exam 1

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physical examination of an animal after death to determine the abnormal and disease-related changes that occured during its life

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1

physical examination of an animal after death to determine the abnormal and disease-related changes that occured during its life

necropsy

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2

True or False: Disease doesn't necessarily mean sickness.

True

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3

True or False: Learning and maintaining a systematic technique isn't mandatory when performing a necropsy examination!

False

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4

Why do we perform necropsies?

to determine exact cause of death, accuracy of the clinical diagnosis, effects of treatment, and risk to other animals or people

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5

What are the areas in which field necropsies are frequently performed:

If a suspected zoonotic disease, we can bury the body 6 feet below right in the field It is more convenient sometimes rather than transporting a large animal More cost efficient Prevents any contamination to the other animals in the field We could get quicker results rather than spending time taking them to a clinic

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6

Obtain owner's written permission ____________ starting the necropsy!

before

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7

True or False: Never freeze the body prior to necropsy!

True

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8

What was be recorded if an animal was euthanized?

the date, time, method

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9

What is the maximum time for a necropsy to be kept refrigerated?

24 hrs

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10

True or False: All PPE and equipment does not have to be dedicated to necropsy to prevent the spread of disease to other animals and people.

False

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11

Basic PPE requiered for ALL necropsy examinations include:

-scrubs -lab coat or coveralls -rubber boots or plastic booties over sneakers -latex or nitrile exam gloves (2 pair) -eye protection (glasses and/or goggles)

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12

True or False: Always wear a mask and goggles when working with any of these wild or exotic species.

True

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13

Additional PPE required when working with non-human primates:

-Latex or Nitrile gloves (2 pair)

  • Full face shield

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14

Additional PPE required when working with avian species:

-Respirator (N95)

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15

The following are commonly used to perform a necropsy exam:

-necropsy knives -scalpel handle and blades -scissors -forceps -utility scissors -ruler or measuring tape -bone-cutting forceps -hacksaw -lopping shears -string or hemostats

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16

The destruction of tissues and cells by their own enzymes.

autolysis

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17

Post-mortem autolysis and putrefaction occur simultaneously resulting in what?

decomposition

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18

External microbial flora and internal normal flora break down tissues which results in color change, gas production, texture changes, and odor.

Putrefaction

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19

What factors affect onset of post-mortem change?

-cause of death -environment temperature -body temperature at time of death -microbial flora present in the body

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20

True or False: Bone survives for a long time after death of the body.

True

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21

blood pooling on the dependent(down) side of the animal after death due to gravity

livor mortis

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22

How long does the livor mortis proccess take till it begins?

within 30 minutes to one hour after death

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23

contraction of the muscles after death resulting in rigidity of the body

rigor mortis

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24

What are required for muscle relaxation and are depleted after death so the muscles contract?

ATP and glycogen

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25

How long down Rigor Mortis take to begin and how long does it last?

one to six hours after death, and lasts for 1 to 2 days

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26

What is another name for bloody nasal discharge?

purge fluid

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27

What results from pressure changes exerted on the body as it decomposes?

reddish-brown, foul-smelling discharge from the oral and nasal cavities

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28

the froth is only present in the distal 1/3 of the trachea

post-mortem change

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29

the froth extends beyond the distal 1/2 of the trachea

pulmonary edema

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30

can occur secondary to bloat as increase pressure is exerted on the abdominal cavity post-mortem

rectal and vaginal prolapse

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31

What occurs as a result of post-mortem gas production in the lumen of the GI tract?

bloating

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32

gas production occuring in tissues secondary to putrefaction

emphysema

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33

increased darkening of the pigmentation of the tissues as a result of increased pigment-like granules in cells such as macrophages in the tissue

melanosis

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34

Blue-green discoloration of the tissues results from the reaction of H2S production from bacterial putrefaction and iron from hemoglobin of lysed RBCs reacting to form iron sulfide

Pseudomelanosis

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35

Red staining of tissues due to the breakdown of vessel walls and lysis of RBCs secondary to autolysis

Hemoglobin Imbibition

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36

Whats the difference between a hemorrhage and hemoglobin imbibition?

-hemorrhage demonstrates sharp borders; dark red to black discoloration of tissues adjacent to normal tissues -hemoglobin imbibition lacks a sharp border; pale pink to red discoloration; and spreads smoothly throughout an entire tissue or organ

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37

What is the other name of bile imbibition?

pseudoicterus

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38

bile leakage from the gallbladder stains surrounding tissues a yellow to greenish-brown color

bile imbibition

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39

Why are lymph nodes in young animals enlarged and reactive?

they are young and naiive

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40

What can occur after death if the animal was struggling to urinate or defecate at the time of death?

Mucosal Reddening of the Colon and Bladder

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41

Another name for mucosal reddening of the colon or bladder.

Tiger striped

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42

Clouding of the lens of the eye when the body is frozen or chilled after death.

Post-mortem cataracts

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43

True or False: Lenses will return to normal as the body warms.

True

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44

Easily confused with true cataracts at time of necropsy if preservation of the body is unknown.

Post-mortem cataracts

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45

Clotted blood pools after death and the heavier RBCs settle to the bottom of the clot with the yellow serum settling on the top

chicken fat clot

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46

Where does post- mortem blood clotting occur within several hours after death?

heart and vessels

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47

disease in which is transmissible from animal to man and vice versa

zoonotic disease

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48

disease transmitted from people to animals

reverse zoonosis (anthroponosis)

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49

How many zoonotic diseases are known to exist?

150

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50

disease caused by previously unknown agents or by known agents in a species or location previously unknown

emerging zoonosis

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51

How are these diseases transmitted?

-direct contact -vector-borne transmission -indirect contact -placental transmission

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52

disease which pose significant threat to human and/or animal health

reportable disease

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53

Why should these diseases be reportable?

-avoid devastation to livestock and poultry populations -prevent export bans on animals and animal-related products -eliminate the financial burden required to control or eradicate the disease -prevent establishment of wildlife reservoirs for disease which would complicate control and eradication

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54

What is the causative agent for Tuberculosis?

Mycobacterium sp.

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55

What is the primary zoonotic agent for Tuberculosis?

Mycobacterium bovis

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56

Who are potentially infected with tuberculosis?

humans non human primates cattle rodents other mammals birds

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57

What is the mode of transmission for Tuberculosis?

-inhalation of droplets (most efficient means of zoonotic transmission) -contaminated equipment -contact with contaminated urine, feces, or mucus secretions -bites -consumption of raw products

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58

This disease affects every part of the body, is chronic, and is mainly characterized by pulmonary/respiratory involvement.

Tuberculosis

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59

What are some symptoms of Tuberculosis in humans?

-fever, fatigue, and cough -chronic pulmonary disease (fatal) -lungs, kidneys and vasculature are all compromised

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60

True or False: Tuberculosis is the highest risk for development of progessive pulmonary/extrapulmonary disease (1-2 years post infection).

True

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61

True or False: Tuberculosis is treatable in people with a 6-month course of antibiotics.

True

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62

What are some general signs of Tuberculosis in animals?

-weakness -anorexia -dyspnea -emaciation -low-grade fever

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63

True or False: Tuberculosis may be asymptomatic and has a history of respiratory distress.

True

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64

Where are granulomas typically found?

lymph nodes spleen liver lung body cavity surface

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65

What does the culture and staining of Tuberculosis look like?

Mycobacterium is a gram positive, acid-fast red

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66

What samples should be collected at necropsy for Tuberculosis diagnosis?

-culture from any abnormal lymph nodes or nodular organs (lungs, liver, spleen) -retropharyngeal, mandibular, supramammary, and mediastinal lymph nodes, and liver -samples for histopathology

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67

Should samples for Tuberculosis be sent off for testing immediately?

Yes

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68

True or False: Tuberculosis is a reportable disease.

True

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69

What is known as the Woolsorter's disease?

Anthrax

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70

What is the causative agent for Anthrax?

Bacillus anthracis

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71

Who are potentially infected with anthrax?

-herbivores are primary host -ruminants are most susceptible to infection -humans and other mammals are accidental hosts

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72

What are the modes of transmission for Anthrax?

-ingestion (GI tract) -inhalation of spores -cutaneous (skin exposure)

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73

What is the most common route for animals to become infected with Anthrax?

Ingestion (GI tract) due to ingestion of spores from contaminated soil

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74

What is the most common route for human infection with Anthrax?

Cutaneous (skin exposure)

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75

What are the symptoms in humans with Anthrax?

-cutaneous form -inhalational form -ingestion -mortality from untreated cases

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76

True or False: Anthrax is not easily treated with antibiotics.

False

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77

True or False: Anthrax can progress to systemic bacteremia, septicemia, and death if untreated.

True

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78

What disease progresses to fever, chills, recumbency, shock, collapse, and death within a few hours?

Anthrax

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79

In Anthrax, what animals is recovery common in?

Pigs, dogs, and cats

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80

What will you see at necropsy of anthrax?

poorly clotted dark blood from anus, vulva, nostrils, and mouth

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81

What should carcasses be done to when dealing with Anthrax?

incinerated

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82

True or False: With Anthrax, necropsies can be performed.

False

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83

What would Anthrax look like under a microscope?

Spore forming encapsulated Gram-positive red

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84

Is Anthrax a reportable disease?

Yes

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85

What is also known as undalant fever, contagious abortion, or Bang's Disease?

Brucellosis

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86

What is the most common mode of transmission for Brucellosis?

contact with placenta, fetus, fetal fluids, and vaginal discharge

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87

Which disease is humans primarily infected cutaneously via contact with infected tissues/fluids?

Brucellosis

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88

Which is one of the most serious diseases of livestock because it spreads so rapidly and is transmissible to humans?

Brucellosis

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89

True or False: Anthrax is the most easily acquired laboratory infection.

False, Brucellosis

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90

What are some symptoms in humans that have Brucellosis?

-flu-like symptoms -fever, aches, bacteremia, and granulomatous lesions -severe complications

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91

What happens to cattle with Brucellosis?

-abortions -stillbirths -weak calves -testicular abscesses -arthritis

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92

What happen to horses with Brucellosis?

-fistulous withers/poll-evil -abortions are rare

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93

With Brucellosis, cattle at necropsy would have what throughout the reproductive tract, mammary tissues, spleen, liver, LN, kidneys, and lungs?

purulent lesions and granulomas

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94

Which Brucellosis species is a reportable disease?

B. abortus

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95

True or False: Brucellosis is destroyed by heat and sunlight exposure.

True

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96

What are some sample collections with Brucellosis?

-stomach contents from aborted feti -afterbirth, placenta, fetal tissues -LN, spleen, liver, milk, semen, infected lesions -blood and serum

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97

What does Brucellosis look like under a microscope?

Gram negative coccobacilli (shortened rods)

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98

What is another name for the Bubonic Plague?

Black Death

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99

What is the causative agent for Bubonic Plague?

Yersenia pestis

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100

Who becomes infected with Bubonic Plague?

rodents: prairie dogs, squirrels, rats, field mice -sometimes humans, rabbits, and cats

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