Final Exam 2

Foods that are considered complete proteins include:

A. meat, fish, and poultry.

B. dairy products.

C. quinoa seeds and chia seeds.

D. eggs.

E. All are correct

E

This is the process of breaking down molecules into smaller molecules and energy is

released.

A. Anabolism

B. Metabolism

C. Enzymes

D. Amino acids

E. Catabolism

E

The process the body uses to obtain or make energy from the food eaten.

A. Anabolism

B. Metabolism

C. Enzymes

D. Calorie

E. Catabolism

B

What statement is incorrect?

A. Carbohydrates are used for energy and to regulate protein and fat metabolism.

B. Carbohydrates include simple sugars, starches, and fiber.

C. Insulin is used to help the glucose move to the cells.

D. Glycogen works on the liver to release the stored glucagon.

E. Fiber does not raise the blood glucose level.

D

Which of the following is not a complex carbohydrate?

A. White rice and white bread

B. Rice and green peas

C. Barley, quinoa, and barley

D. Split peas and pinto beans

E. Nuts and seeds

E

What is true regarding fat?

A. Fat is used for energy if glucose is not available.

B. Fat is used for healthy skin and hair.

C. Fat is used for vitamin absorption.

D. All are correct

E. Fat is used for healthy skin and hair and fat is used for vitamin absorption.

D

Minerals:

A. are naturally occurring organic substances.

B. found in the body fluids are called electrolytes.

C. like calcium and potassium are considered trace minerals.

D. like iron and zinc are macrominerals.

B

Vitamin D can be found in:

A. fatty fish.

B. broccoli and tomatoes.

C. liver and egg yolks.

D. fortified milk.

E. fatty fish and fortified milk.

E

A deficiency in vitamin C causes:

A. cheilitis.

B. scurvy.

C. bleeding.

D. glossitis.

E. beriberi.

B

Water:

A. makes up more than 85% of the body.

B. is used to keep the body temperature normal.

C. is used to lubricate and cushion joints.

D. All are correct

E. is used to keep the body temperature normal and is used to lubricate and cushion

joints.

E

The term for the process of breaking down food is:

A. absorption.

B. digestion.

C. ingestion.

D. elimination.

B

Patients with a pathologic condition of the tissues surrounding the teeth.

A. Gastric disease

B. Buccal disease

C. Salivary disease

D. Periodontal disease

D

Another name for a bowel movement is

A. digestion.

B. defecation.

C. deglutition.

D. flatus.

B

Pyrosis is a healthcare term for:

A. belching.

B. bad breath.

C. heartburn.

D. constipation.

C

Inflammation of the small marble-size pouches that form in the large intestine and protrude through the weakened walls of the large intestine:

A. acute peritonitis.

B. IBD.

C. IBS.

D. diverticulitis.

D

Twisting of the intestines is:

A. intussusception.

B. volvulus.

C. ileus.

D. ileum.

B

Swollen and inflamed veins in the lower rectum or anus are:

A. anorectal abscesses.

B. volvuli.

C. hemorrhoids.

D. anal fissures.

C

Another name for gallstones is:

A. biliary colic.

B. choledocholithiasis.

C. renal calculi.

D. cholelithiasis.

D

An artificial opening from the intestinal tract to the outside of the body is a:

A. stoma.

B. villus.

C. singultus.

D. pylorus.

A

The lining of the small intestine has folds which contain small projections called:

A. plica.

B. villi.

C. ruga.

D. lacteal.

B

Another term for epinephrine is:

A. acetylcholine.

B. adrenaline.

C. norepinephrine.

D. dopamine.

B

Aldosterone regulates:

A. calcium.

B. vitamins.

C. sodium and water balance.

D. sex hormones.

C

Androgen are:

A. catecholamines.

B. mineralocorticoids.

C. glucocorticoids.

D. sex hormones.

D

Which hormone stimulates milk production in the breast?

A. TSH

B. PRL

C. ACTH

D. STH

B

The part of the master gland that secretes ADH is the:

A. anterior lobe.

B. adrenal cortex.

C. posterior lobe.

D. islets of Langerhans.

C

Which gland regulates cell metabolism?

A. Adrenal cortex

B. Adrenal medulla

C. Thyroid gland

D. Parathyroid gland

C

Deficiency or lack of all pituitary hormones, causing hypotension, weight loss, weakness, and loss of libido, is:

A. GHD.

B. gigantism.

C. diabetes insipidus.

D. panhypopituitarism.

D

Deficiency of calcium in the blood is:

A. hypocalcemia.

B. hypokalemia.

C. hypoglycemia.

D. hyponatremia.

A

Deficiency of sugar in the blood is:

A. hypocalcemia.

B. hypokalemia.

C. hypoglycemia.

D. hyponatremia.

C

The condition of excessive urination is:

A. polydipsia.

B. polyuria.

C. polyphagia.

D. micturition.

B

The condition of excessive thirst is:

A. polydipsia.

B. polyuria.

C. polyphagia.

D. paresthesia.

A

___ is the leading cause of death among men and women.

A. Heart disease

B. Diabetes

C. Cancer

D. Stroke

A

Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of diabetes in the elderly?

A. Slow wound healing

B. Cough

C. Weight loss

D. Polyuria

B

Which of the following is caused by increasing pressure inside the eye?

A. Cataract

B. Glaucoma

C. Macular degeneration

D. None are correct

B

Medications that may contribute to constipation include:

A. calcium.

B. antihypertensives.

C. antidepressants.

D. calcium and antidepressants.

D

Which of the following is/are true of age-related vision changes?

A. Patients require up to four times as much as light.

B. Glare is a serious problem.

C. Individuals have difficulty adjusting to abrupt changes in light.

D. Glare is a serious problem and individuals have difficulty adjusting to abrupt changes in light are true.

D

Changes caused by the ultraviolet light from the sun or by the normal aging process can affect which of the following layers of skin?

A. Epidermis

B. Dermis

C. Subcutaneous tissue

D. All are correct

D

Which of the following changes in the aging patient are directly related to the individual’s activity level?

A. Height

B. Weight

C. Muscular

D. Skeletal

C

Which of the following diagnostic tests provides a definitive diagnosis of Alzheimer’s disease?

A. Examination of the brain at autopsy

B. Computed tomography

C. Magnetic resonance imaging

D. Positron emission tomography

A

Sleep problems are often confused with which of the following conditions?

A. Dementia

B. Depression

C. Cardiovascular disease

D. All are correct

A

A term used to describe a blood sample in which the red blood cells have ruptured is:

A. hematoma.

B. preservatives.

C. hemolyzed.

D. teratogen.

C

Which of the following is not a responsibility of the medical assistant in the clinical

laboratory?

A. Providing proper patient preparation

B. Interpreting abnormal results and providing patients with diagnoses

C. Developing a knowledge of analyte normal range of results

D. Obtaining and labeling specimens

B

Laboratory department that studies bacteria, fungi, yeasts, parasites, and viruses is:

A. chemistry.

B. histology.

C. microbiology.

D. hematology.

C

A centrifuge is used to separate:

A. solids from liquids.

B. blood cells from serum or plasma.

C. crystals from urine.

D. All are correct

D

Which of the following is a qualitative laboratory test result?

A. RBCs: 6,000,000/mm³

B. Fecal occult blood test: positive

C. Hematocrit: 45%

D. RBCs: 6,000,000/mm³ and Hematocrit: 45%

B

Before a laboratory test can be used for patient samples, quality control must be run to ensure that the test is considered:

A. precise.

B. accurate.

C. reliable.

D. dependable.

C

The top diamond (red) of the national fire protection association identification system indicates which of the following?

A. Flammability

B. Health hazard

C. Special hazard information

D. Reactivity or stability hazard

A

Which of the following requires the laboratory employer to have a written exposure control plan to protect the lab’s employees?

A. OSHA’s Bloodborne Pathogens Standard

B. CDC’s universal precautions

C. CDC’s standard precautions

D. OSHA’s SDS standard

A

What term describes the physical, chemical, and microscopic examination of urine?

A. Urinalysis

B. Culture and sensitivity

C. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

D. None are correct

A

The term used that indicates a laboratory test should be run immediately.

A. ASAP

B. Code blue

C. STAT

D. PPE

C

Supportive connective tissue that connects bones at a joint

A. Muscles

B. Ligaments

C. Tendons

D. Fasciae

B

The shaft of a long bone is the:

A. diaphysis.

B. epiphysis.

C. metaphysis.

D. matrix.

A

Cells that build bone are:

A. osteoblasts.

B. osteocytes.

C. osteoclasts.

D. osteons.

A

A full range of motion joint is called a synovial joint or a(n):

A. synarthrosis.

B. amphiarthrosis.

C. diarthrosis.

D. bursa.

C

A disorder characterized by muscle pain, fatigue, and "tender points" on the legs, hips, back, arms, shoulders, and neck is:

A. myasthenia gravis.

B. osteoporosis.

C. fibromyalgia.

D. spondylosis.

C

Bacterial or fungal infection of the bone is:

A. osteomyelitis.

B. osteoporosis.

C. osteomalacia.

D. osteochondritis.

A

A condition of the fusing or webbing of the fingers or toes is:

A. polymyositis.

B. contracture.

C. syndactyly.

D. synarthrosis.

C

What type of muscle makes up the walls of hollow internal organs, blood vessels, respiratory system passageways, and other structures in the body?

A. Cardiac

B. Smooth

C. Bundled

D. Skeletal

B

A soft disk between the vertebrae, slips out of place and ruptures. What condition does this describe?

A. Scoliosis

B. Spondylolisthesis

C. A herniated disk

D. Spinal stenosis

C

The bus driver and the administrative assistant were both diagnosed with a compression injury that causes tingling, burning, and numbness in the thumb and fingers. They both have:

A. osteoarthritis.

B. rheumatoid arthritis.

C. carpal tunnel syndrome.

D. osteoporosis.

C

Which type of therapy focuses on improving a person's movement, strength, and mobility through the use of stretches, exercises, and other physical activities?

A. Rehabilitation therapy

B. Occupational therapy

C. Speech therapy

D. Physical therapy

D

What is the role of a medical assistant when assisting a provider with the examination?

A. Obtain the patient's vital signs and medical history

B. Update the allergy and medication lists

C. Complete a functional assessment if required

D. All are correct

D

The normal movement allowed by the joint is

A. range of motion.

B. joint range.

C. ligament.

D. tendon.

E. cartilage.

A

Which test measures the calcium and other minerals in the bone?

A. EMG

B. CT scan

C. Arthrogram

D. DEXA scan

E. Nerve conduction velocity

D

A dry, crackling sound or sensation is

A. a stoma.

B. a modality.

C. crepitation.

D. a gait.

C

When measuring the range of motion, what is also noted?

A. Pain

B. Tenderness

C. Crepitation

D. All are correct

E. A and C

D

You need to apply an elastic bandage to a 16-year-old's hand. What size would you apply?

A. 1-inch elastic bandage

B. 2-inch elastic bandage

C. 3-inch elastic bandage

D. 4 to 6-inch elastic bandage

E. ¾ inch elastic bandage

B

Which device is used to keep the joint from moving

A. Sling

B. Immobilizer

C. Splint

D. Brace

E. Ankle boot

B

Which patient would be at a higher risk for tissue injury with heat or cold applications?

A. A 2-year-old child

B. An 84-year-old man

C. A patient with diabetes mellitus

D. A patient with spinal cord damage

E. All are correct

E

Which does not occur with cold therapy?

A. Vasodilation

B. Reduce inflammation

C. Increase in blood viscosity

D. Increase in blood clotting

E. Reduce pain

A

Unshakable belief in something untrue; maybe accompanied by hallucinations and/or paranoia.

A. Euphoria

B. Depersonalization

C. Delusion

D. Affect

E. Mania

C

A sensory experience (e.g., a smell, sound, sight, touch, or taste) involving something that is not present.

A. Euphoria

B. Depersonalization

C. Derealization

D. Hallucination

E. Mania

D

What is the medication classification of valproic acid?

A. Anticonvulsant and mood stabilizer

B. Antidepressant

C. Anti-anxiety

D. Antipsychotic

E. Beta-blocker

A

What is the medication classification of venlafaxine?

A. Anticonvulsant and mood stabilizer

B. Antidepressant

C. Anti-anxiety

D. Antipsychotic

E. MAOI

B

What is a related factor to mental, developmental, or behavioral disorder?

A. Poverty

B. Neighborhood concerns

C. Parents with mental health issues

D. Childcare problems that affect the parent's job

E. All are correct

E

With ___, a person has frequent, upsetting thoughts and an overwhelming urge to repeat certain behaviors.

A. GAD

B. OCD

C. HD

D. panic disorder

E. phobia

B

What developmental disorder causes difficulty interacting and communicating with others? Symptoms appear by age 2.

A. Panic disorder

B. Phobia

C. Autism spectrum disorder

D. Depression

E. Disruptive behavior disorder

C

What is the etiology of panic disorders?

A. May be related to major stress

B. May be related to genetics

C. May be related to sensitivity to stress

D. Certain changes in brain function

E. All are correct

E

This condition can occur after experiencing or witnessing a traumatic or terrifying event; it is seen in war veterans and people who have been in a natural disaster.

A. Depression

B. PTSD

C. Personality Disorder

D. ADHD

E. Schizophrenia

B

What is a sign or symptom of autism spectrum disorder?

A. Feeling sad and very tired

B. Loss of interest in favorite activities

C. Restrictive and repetitive behavior

D. Hyperactivity and impulse

E. Angry

C

This assessment is also called neurocognitive testing.

A. Intellectual functioning

B. Academic achievement

C. Mental status testing

D. Adaptive behavior

E. Personality testing

C

During which period in a child's life is weight gain the fastest in proportion to the child's total weight?

A. First 6 months

B. Age 6 months to 1 year

C. Preschool

D. Adolescence

A

A child's head circumference should be measured to the closest

inch.

A. 1/8

B. 1/4

C. 1/2

D. 3/4

B

Colic in infants is most often characterized by:

A. diarrhea.

B. mild abdominal distress and crying.

C. disappearance of the condition by age 6 months.

D. allergies to breast milk.

B

A middle ear infection is called:

A. otitis media.

B. otitis externa.

C. otalgia.

D. meningitis.

A

Which of the following immunizations is administered IM?

A. Varicella

В. Hep В

C. Rotavirus

D. Pneumococcal

E. Hep B and pneumococcal

E

Which child should be seen in the office today?

A. The child who has had more than six stools in the past 36 hours.

B. The child with a fever of 100.2°F (37.9°C).

C. The child who has not slept well for two nights.

D. The child whose parent reports that she has a rash, which is not itchy.

A

Studies have shown that a child who is obese between the ages of ___ has an 80% chance of becoming an obese adult.

A. 2 and 4

B. 4 and 8

C. 8 and 12

10 and 13

D

Which of the following infectious diseases is caused by parvovirus B19 with outbreaks most common in the winter and spring?

A. Conjunctivitis

B. Tonsillitis

C. Fifths disease

D. Hand-foot-and-mouth disease

C

What is the leading cause of death and injury in adolescents?

A. Accidents

B. Suicide

C. Eating disorders

D. Obesity

A

Surgical instruments generally are classified according to use. Which is not a classification for instruments?

A. Cutting

B. Grasping

C. Restabilizing

D. Probing and dilating

C

How should instruments be handled after the surgery is complete?

A. Place heavier instruments at the bottom of a collection basin.

B. Keep all instruments locked to prevent accidental injury.

C. Wait until any blood on the instrument has dried before cleaning.

D. Use a detergent with a neutral pH that creates a high level of suds.

E. Place heavier instruments at the bottom of a collection basin and use a detergent with a neutral pH that creates a high level of suds.

A

The recommended method for cleaning sharp instruments is to:

A. use an ultrasonic cleaner.

B. wear appropriate PPE.

C. use the proper concentration of disinfectant.

D. rinse instruments with sterile water before sterilizing.

A

These instruments have very sharp hooks.

A. Tissue forceps

B. Needle holders

C. Splinter forceps

D. Towel forceps (towel clamps)

D

Which are the largest hemostat forceps?

A. Mosquito forceps

B. Curved forceps

C. Kelly forceps

D. Straight forceps

C

Venipunctures or injections must be performed using which of the following protocols?

A. Asepsis

B. Medical asepsis

C. Surgical asepsis

D. Sterile technique

C

Local anesthesia can last as long as 5 hours.

A. True

B. False

B

One method of controlling epistaxis is to apply silver nitrate sticks to the bleeder site.

A. True

B. False

A

Bandage scissors have a pointy, sharp probe tip that is inserted under the bandage to aid removal.

A. True

B. False

B

No harm is done if a sterile field gets wet.

A. True

B. False

B