Enzymes, DNA Replication, and Cell Cycle: Key Concepts for Biology

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78 Terms

1
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Q: What are enzymes?

A: Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up chemical reactions without being consumed.

2
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Q: Where does a substrate bind on an enzyme?

A: At the enzyme's active site.

3
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Q: What determines enzyme-substrate specificity?

A: The shape and chemical properties of the enzyme's active site.

4
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Q: What interactions hold substrates in the active site?

A: Weak noncovalent interactions such as hydrogen bonds.

5
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Q: What do enzymes lower in chemical reactions?

A: The activation energy (Ea).

6
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Q: Does the overall free energy change (∆G) change when an enzyme catalyzes a reaction?

A: No, only the reaction rate increases.

7
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Q: What happens if an enzyme is exposed to extreme temperature or pH?

A: It may denature and lose its structure and function.

8
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Q: What is ATP's role in cells?

A: ATP provides energy to drive endergonic reactions.

9
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Q: Is ATP hydrolysis exergonic or endergonic?

A: Exergonic.

10
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Q: What does ATP hydrolysis produce?

A: ADP and inorganic phosphate (Pi).

11
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Q: How do enzymes couple reactions?

A: They link exergonic and endergonic reactions at the active site.

12
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Q: What is reversible enzyme regulation?

A: Modifications such as phosphorylation that can quickly activate or deactivate enzymes.

13
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Q: What is irreversible regulation?

A: Permanent activation or inactivation through covalent bond cleavage.

14
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Q: What is a competitive inhibitor?

A: A molecule that binds to the active site and competes with the substrate.

15
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Q: What is an allosteric inhibitor?

A: A molecule that binds to a site other than the active site, changing enzyme shape and reducing activity.

16
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Q: What is the difference between active site and allosteric site regulation?

A: Active site regulation affects substrate binding, while allosteric site regulation changes enzyme conformation to increase or decrease activity.

17
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Q: What is the purpose of DNA replication?

A: To create identical copies of DNA before cell division.

18
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Q: What model describes DNA replication?

A: The semiconservative model.

19
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Q: In what direction does DNA polymerase synthesize DNA?

A: 5′ to 3′ direction.

20
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Q: What does helicase do?

A: Unwinds the DNA double helix at the replication fork.

21
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Q: What do single-stranded binding proteins do?

A: Bind to separated DNA strands to prevent reannealing.

22
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Q: What does topoisomerase do?

A: Relieves tension in DNA caused by unwinding.

23
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Q: What does primase do?

A: Synthesizes short RNA primers complementary to DNA template strands.

24
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Q: What does DNA polymerase do?

A: Extends primers, replaces RNA primers with DNA, and proofreads mismatches.

25
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Q: What does DNA ligase do?

A: Joins Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand.

26
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Q: How is the leading strand synthesized?

A: Continuously toward the replication fork.

27
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Q: How is the lagging strand synthesized?

A: Discontinuously in Okazaki fragments away from the fork.

28
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Q: What are Okazaki fragments?

A: Short DNA segments synthesized on the lagging strand.

29
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Q: What is the difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic replication origins?

A: Prokaryotes have one origin per circular chromosome; eukaryotes have multiple origins on linear chromosomes

30
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Q: What are telomeres?

A: Repetitive DNA sequences at chromosome ends that prevent information loss.

31
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Q: What enzyme maintains telomeres?

A: Telomerase.

32
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Q: What is PCR used for?

A: To amplify specific DNA sequences.

33
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Q: What are the three steps of PCR?

A: Denaturation, annealing, and extension.

34
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Q: What enzyme is used in PCR and why?

A: Taq polymerase, because it is heat-stable.

35
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Q: What are common causes of DNA damage?

A: UV light, X-rays, and chemical mutagens.

36
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Q: What are two DNA repair mechanisms?

A: Mismatch repair and nucleotide excision repair.

37
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Q: What damage does UV light cause?

A: Formation of thymine dimers.

38
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Q: When does DNA replication occur in the cell cycle?

A: During the S phase of interphase.

39
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Q: What is a point mutation?

A: A change in a single nucleotide base.

40
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Q: What is a nonsynonymous (missense) mutation?

A: A base change that alters the amino acid sequence of a protein.

41
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Q: What is a synonymous (silent) mutation?

A: A base change that does not alter the amino acid sequence.

42
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Q: What is a nonsense mutation?

A: A mutation that introduces a premature stop codon.

43
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Q: What is a frameshift mutation?

A: Insertion or deletion not in multiples of three that shifts the reading frame.

44
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Q: How can frameshift mutations affect proteins?

A: They often cause severe disruption of protein structure and function.

45
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Q: How can mutations lead to cancer?

A: They can disrupt genes controlling cell cycle regulation, leading to uncontrolled growth.

46
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Q: What are the main phases of the cell cycle?

A: G1, S, G2, and M phases.

47
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Q: What happens during G1 phase?

A: Cell grows and prepares for DNA synthesis.

48
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Q: What happens during S phase?

A: DNA replication occurs.

49
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Q: What happens during G2 phase?

A: The cell prepares for mitosis by producing proteins and organelles.

50
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Q: What happens during M phase?

A: The cell divides its chromosomes and cytoplasm into two nuclei.

51
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Q: What is the G0 phase?

A: A nondividing, resting phase where cells perform normal functions.

52
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Q: What do Cyclin-CDK complexes control?

A: Progression through the cell cycle by phosphorylating target proteins.

53
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Q: What does Cyclin D-CDK control?

A: Prepares the cell for S phase (G1/S transition).

54
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Q: What does Cyclin A-CDK control?

A: Initiates and regulates DNA replication.

55
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Q: What does Cyclin B-CDK control?

A: Prepares the cell for mitosis (M phase).

56
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Q: What is the G1 checkpoint?

A: Ensures DNA is undamaged before replication.

57
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Q: What is the G2 checkpoint?

A: Ensures all DNA is replicated correctly before mitosis.

58
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Q: What is the M checkpoint?

A: Ensures all chromosomes are properly attached to spindle fibers before separation.

59
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Q: What is the role of p53?

A: It halts the cell cycle when DNA damage is detected and promotes repair or apoptosis.

60
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Q: How is p53 activated?

A: By phosphorylation after DNA damage.

61
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Q: What happens when p53 is active?

A: It inhibits Cyclin-CDK complexes and promotes transcription of repair genes.

62
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Q: What happens if p53 is mutated?

A: Cells may divide uncontrollably, contributing to cancer development.

63
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Q: In a human somatic cell that undergoes meiosis, the daughter cells will contain 46 chromosomes.

A: False

64
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Q: Prokaryotic chromosomes are made of chromatin which contains DNA wrapped around histone proteins in structures called nucleosomes.

A: False

65
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Q: During the scientific process, scientists determine an alternative hypothesis which assumes there is no significant difference between variables or populations.

A: False

66
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Q: In prokaryotes, alternative splicing allows a single gene to encode multiple gene products.

A: False

67
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Q: When exposed to a non-optimal temperature, the peptide bonds in proteins denature.

A: False

68
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Q: The amino group of an amino acid gives each polypeptide monomer its distinct chemical properties.

A: False

69
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Q: What characteristic makes eukaryotic cells different from prokaryotic cells?

A: C) Chloroplasts and mitochondria that make energy for the cell to use.

70
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Q: Given the following description, identify the stage of eukaryotic cell division: The nuclear envelope breaks down and microtubules attach to kinetochores at the centromeres of homologous chromosomes.

A: A) Prometaphase I of meiosis I

71
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Q: Which of the following sentences correctly states one of Mendel's laws?

A: C) The law of independent assortment states that the alleles of different genes separate independently of each other during meiosis.

72
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Q: In eukaryotic DNA, if you made a change to the terminator sequence that affected RNA polymerase binding, what would happen?

A: B) More RNA than usual would be transcribed because RNA polymerase would not stop transcribing.

73
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Q: Which statement is true about DNA methylation and histone acetylation?

D) Acetyl groups are added to or removed from histone proteins which causes a change in transcription.

74
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Q: Which of the following statements about transcription is true?

: B) Incoming nucleotides (NTPs) must be oriented to form hydrogen bonds with complementary DNA bases.

75
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Q: Suppose a drug inhibited binding of a translational release factor to the A site of the ribosome. When would this affect translation?

A: D) Termination of translation

76
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Q: Activators are transcription factors that increase gene expression by binding to regulatory sequences. How might they function?

A: A) When an activator binds to an enhancer, it helps other activators bind to their enhancers.

77
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Q: Which characteristic is properly matched with its translational component?

A: D) Initiation factor - Composed of nucleotides only.

78
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Q: When DNA is heated, which bonds dissociate first?

A: D) Base stacking interactions between bases within the same DNA strand.

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