FINAL - ST310

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340 Terms

1
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Which of the following statements regarding arch bars is CORRECT?

Select one:

a. They are thin, malleable bars with hooks facing down for maxilla and up for mandible.

b. They are thin, malleable bars with hooks facing up for maxilla and down for mandible.

c. They are thick, rigid, semicircle bars with hooks facing up for maxilla and down for mandible.

d. They are thick, rigid, semicircle bars with hooks facing down for maxilla and up for mandible.

They are thin, malleable bars with hooks facing up for maxilla and down for mandible.

2
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What is the MOST common position for patients undergoing oral and maxillofacial procedures?

Select one:

a. supine with arms on armboards

b. Trendelenberg with arms on armboards

c. Trendelenberg with arms tucked in at sides

d. supine with arms tucked in at sides

Supine with arms tucked in at sides

3
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Surgical treatment of which anatomical area might result in a postoperative complication of malocclusion?

Select one:

a. jaw

b. nose

c. palate

d. orbit

Jaw

4
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All of the following are configurations of fixation plates for maxillofacial fracture reduction EXCEPT:

Select one:

a. Y

b. L

c. W

d. H

W

5
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Which of the following involves the highest portion of the midface and presents the most extensive damage?

Select one:

a. Le Fort IV

b. Le Fort II

c. Le Fort I

d. Le Fort III

Le Fort III

6
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Patients treated for Le Fort type fractures may have extensive scarring and change in facial characteristics.

Select one:

True

False

True

7
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What is the term that describes the side of teeth closest to the cheek?

Select one:

a. lingual

b. buccal

c. labial

d. alveolar

Buccal

8
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Which of the following is NOT one of the three regions of a tooth?

Select one:

a. root

b. socket

c. crown

d. neck

Socket

9
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Which diameter fixation screw would MOST likely be used for a fracture of the mandible?

Select one:

a. 4.0 mm

b. 2.0 mm

c. 3.0 mm

d. 1.0 mm

4.0 mm

10
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Which type of sterile drape is commonly used for oral and maxillofacial procedures?

Select one:

a. U-drape

b. plastic incise

c. thyroid

d. pediatric laparotomy

U-drape

11
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Dental drills are always used to cut bone so that teeth can be extracted whole.

Select one:

True

False

False

12
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How many craniofacial bones make up the orbit?

Select one:

a. nine

b. three

c. seven

d. five

Seven

13
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Which muscle attaches to the coronoid process of the ramus?

Select one:

a. sternocleidomastoid

b. platysma

c. frontalis

d. temporalis

Temporalis

14
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Which teeth are located in the center front of the mouth?

Select one:

a. bicuspids

b. cuspids

c. molars

d. incisors

Incisors

15
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What is the name of the narrow, double-angle retractor frequently used in oral procedures?

Select one:

a. Minnesota

b. plastic cheek

c. mouth prop

d. Senn

Minnesota

16
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What other role is the surgical technologist often required to fill during oral and maxillofacial procedures?

Select one:

a. circulator

b. assistant

c. anesthesia provider

d. radiology tech

Assistant

17
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Which sequence of steps for plate fixation is CORRECT?

Select one:

a. Place plate, drill one hole at a time, tap, measure with depth gauge, insert screw, and repeat steps for remaining holes.

b. Drill all holes, place plate, measure with depth gauge, tap, and insert screws.

c. Place plate, drill one hole at a time, measure with depth gauge, tap, insert screw, and repeat steps for remaining holes.

d. Drill all holes, place plate, tap, measure with depth gauge, and insert screws.

Place plate, drill one hole at a time, measure with depth gauge, tap, insert screw, and repeat steps for remaining holes

18
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Which procedure is performed for removal of impacted wisdom teeth?

Select one:

a. extraction

b. odontectomy

c. mandibulectomy

d. enucleation

Odontectomy

19
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Which countable sponge is used in oral procedures to prevent bone or tooth fragments and other foreign matter from becoming lodged in the pharynx?

Select one:

a. lap pads

b. Weck-Cel

c. Cottonoids

d. throat pack

Throat pack

20
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Strands of wire used to attach arch bars to the upper and lower jaw should be prestretched and cut to which length?

Select one:

a. 15 mm

b. 20 mm

c. 5 mm

d. 10 mm

10mm

21
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The mandible articulates with which part of the temporal bone to form the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)?

Select one:

a. glenoid fossa

b. orbital floor

c. alveolar process

d. symphysis

Glenoid fossa

22
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A closed ventilation system and special endotracheal tube may be used in maxillofacial procedures to reduce risk of:

Select one:

a. aspiration

b. airway fire

c. hyperthermia

d. obstruction

Airway Fire

23
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Coral would be classified as what type of graft material?

Select one:

a. autograft

b. xenograft

c. synthetic

d. homograft

Xenograft

24
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Which of the following may be used as permanent support on top of the orbital floor following fixation of fracture?

Select one:

a. polymethyl methacrylate

b. silastic sheeting

c. arch bar

d. titanium plate

Silastic Sheeting

25
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Which of the following must accompany the patient to the PACU who has undergone maxillomandibular fixation?

Select one:

a. throat pack

b. dental rolls

c. mouth prop

d. wire cutters

Wire Cutters

26
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Dental procedures require thorough cavity prepping due to possibility of surgical site infections.

Select one:

True

False

False

27
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The hard palate is the:

Select one:

a. roof of the mouth

b. floor of the mouth

c. separation of the nostrils

d. protrusion of the chin

Roof of the Mouth

28
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Irrigation and what other item is used anytime the dental drill is used during odontectomy?

Select one:

a. ESU pencil

b. Ray-Tec 4 x 4

c. suction

d. bone wax

Suction

29
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Which hemostatic agent is used during oral and maxillofacial procedures that requires advising the anesthesia provider of its use?

Select one:

a. bone wax

b. absorbable collagen

c. topical thrombin

d. epinephrine

Epinephrine

30
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Which type of nonabsorbable maxillofacial implant used in fracture fixation is lightweight, noncorrosive, and strong?

Select one:

a. tungsten

b. copper

c. plastic

d. titanium

Titanium

31
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Which radiographic technique or view shows the alveolar processes, mandible, posterior maxillary sinuses, and the zygomas?

Select one:

a. panoramic

b. PA

c. basal

d. AP

Panoramic

32
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Which of the following is the MOST common type of midfacial fracture and is also known as a transmaxillary fracture?

Select one:

a. Le Fort II

b. Le Fort III

c. Le Fort I

d. Le Fort IV

Le Fort I

33
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Tapping of bone is done in fixation procedures to reduce:

Select one:

a. torque pressure on screws

b. need to strip periosteum first

c. size of fixation plate used

d. number of screws needed

Torque pressure on screws

34
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Care must be taken when preauricular and submandibular incisions are made to protect which cranial nerve?

Select one:

a. fifth (V)

b. eighth (VIII)

c. seventh (VII)

d. third (III)

Seventh (VII)

35
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Which of the following facial bones is the largest and strongest?

Select one:

a. frontal

b. maxilla

c. ethmoid

d. mandible

Mandible

36
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Craniofacial disjunction fractures are severe traumatic injuries categorized as Le Fort III fractures.

Select one:

True

False

True

37
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Which bone contributes to the posterior and inferior portion of the nasal septum?

Select one:

a. zygoma

b. vomer

c. nasal

d. mandible

Vomer

38
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Odontectomy procedures are given a wound classification of Class II.

Select one:

True

False

True

39
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Which bones of the face form the prominences of the cheeks?

Select one:

a. vomer

b. nasal

c. zygomatic

d. mandible

Zygomatic

40
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What should the surgical technologist do before handing a retractor to the surgeon for use in orbital floor fracture?

Select one:

a. Pad it with a Cottonoid.

b. Lubricate it with mineral oil.

c. Bend it to a curved configuration.

d. Moisten it with saline.

Moisten it with saline

41
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Which type of mechanical action of a drill attachment is MOST commonly used in otologic procedures?

Select one:

a. rotary

b. reciprocating

c. sagittal

d. oscillating

Rotary

42
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Which of the following procedures would require use of an operating microscope?

Select one:

a. stapedectomy

b. turbinectomy

c. septoplasty

d. tracheostomy

Stapedectomy

43
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Which procedure is performed for treatment of sleep apnea?

Select one:

a. BMT

b. FESS

c. UPPP

d. SMR

UPPP

44
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Which of the paranasal sinuses are numerous, small, and located on either side of the bridge of the nose, between the eyes?

Select one:

a. frontal

b. sphenoid

c. ethmoid

d. maxillary

Ethmoid

45
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What is the name of the structure that separates the outer and middle ear canals from one another?

Select one:

a. turbinates

b. epiglottis

c. tympanic membrane

d. external auditory meatus

Tympanic Membrane

46
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What is the name of the wax that is normally produced and found within the ear canal?

Select one:

a. sputum

b. tympanum

c. cerumen

d. septum

Cerumen

47
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A procedure sometimes performed in the ICU, ER, or PACU is a(n):

Select one:

a. tracheotomy

b. cochlear implant

c. submucosal resection (SMR)

d. bilateral myringotomy tubes (BMT)

Tracheotomy

48
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Topical cocaine 4% is used in nasal surgery for:

Select one:

a. anesthesia

b. dilation

c. prepping

d. lubrication

Anesthesia

49
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Which of the following is NOT an ossicle found in the middle ear?

Select one:

a. malleus

b. incus

c. cochlea

d. stapes

Cochlea

50
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What is the name of the sharp-tipped, handheld retractor that can be either single or double and often is found in nasal trays?

Select one:

a. Aufricht

b. Senn

c. Weitlaner

d. Joseph

Joseph

<p>Joseph</p>
51
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Rhinoplasty procedures are often considered "plastic surgery" cases rather than otorhinolaryngological.

Select one:

True

False

True

52
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Which of the following is a curved, serrated tonsil knife?

Select one:

a. Fisher

b. Button

c. Sexton

d. Beaver

Fisher

53
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What is the term that describes a nasal septum that typically causes obstructed breathing in older patients?

Select one:

a. sclerotic

b. deviated

c. ossified

d. collateral

Deviated

54
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PE tubes placed during myringotomy procedures must be removed following resolution of otitis media.

Select one:

True

False

False

55
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Which structure is often blocked with stones in the parotid gland, possibly necessitating surgical removal of the gland?

Select one:

a. canal of Schlemm

b. Steno's duct

c. paranasal ostia

d. nasolacrimal duct

Steno's duct

56
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Why is a scapular or shoulder roll used in procedures involving the oropharynx?

Select one:

a. provide comfort for awake patient

b. prevent pressure necrosis

c. reduce intraoperative bleeding

d. tilt head to increase exposure

Tilt head to increase exposure

57
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Powered equipment such as ear drills and irrigation and aspiration units should always be tested prior to use to prevent delay or possible patient injury.

Select one:

True

False

True

58
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How should micro ear instruments be cleaned intraoperatively?

Select one:

a. soaked in sterile saline

b. wiped with a Ray-Tec 4 x 4 sponge

c. wiped with a micro-wipe sponge

d. soaked in sterile water

Wiped with a micro-wipe sponge

59
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An otorhinolaryngologist is more commonly known as which type of specialist?

Select one:

a. ENT

b. OB/GYN

c. allergist

d. pediatrician

ENT

60
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Which instrument is used to measure the distance from incus to stapes footplate for selection of a prosthesis in stapedectomy?

Select one:

a. sound

b. caliper

c. trial/sizer

d. depth gauge

depth gauge

61
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What is an alternate name for the bony nasal projections known as turbinates?

Select one:

a. cochlea

b. conchae

c. ossicles

d. ostia

conchae

62
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Which cranial nerve carries information related to equilibrium to the cerebral cortex?

Select one:

a. eighth (VIII)

b. fifth (V)

c. tenth (X)

d. third (III)

eighth (VIII)

63
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Which gas can cause expansion of the middle and therefore is contraindicated in tympanic graft cases?

Select one:

a. argon

b. nitrous oxide

c. carbon dioxide

d. oxygen

nitrous oxide

64
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Which of the following descriptions and classification of laryngeal cartilage pertains to the epiglottis?

Select one:

a. individual and elastic

b. paired and hyaline

c. individual and hyaline

d. paired and elastic

individual and elastic

65
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In which instrument tray would you find a Ballenger swivel knife, Cottle elevator, Knight scissors, and Takahashi forceps?

Select one:

a. FESS

b. T&A

c. SMR

d. BMT

SMR

66
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Which laryngeal cartilage is commonly known as the "Adam's apple"?

Select one:

a. cuneiform

b. cricoid

c. arytenoid

d. thyroid

thyroid

67
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What is the surgical technologist often asked to do for the surgeon during septal procedures?

Select one:

a. Extract fragments with the Takahashi.

b. Suture the nasal mucosa closed.

c. Tap the chisel with the mallet lightly.

d. Insert cocaine-soaked Cottonoids into the nose.

c. Tap the chisel with the mallet lightly.

68
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Which type of laser is useful for procedures involving the stapes and middle ear?

Select one:

a. carbon dioxide

b. Nd:YAG

c. argon

d. holmium: YAG

argon

69
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A TMJ decompression procedure is performed in which anatomical area?

Select one:

a. lateral sinus

b. anterior face

c. lateral jaw

d. anterior neck

lateral jaw

70
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Which of the following statements comparing rigid bronchoscopes and esophagoscopes to rigid laryngoscopes is correct?

Select one:

a. Esophagoscopes are shorter than laryngoscopes, and the distal end is straight.

b. Bronchoscopes are longer than laryngoscopes, and the distal end is straight.

c. Bronchoscopes are longer than laryngoscopes, and the distal end is flared.

d. Esophagoscopes are shorter than laryngoscopes, and the distal end is flared.

Bronchoscopes are longer than laryngoscopes, and the distal end is straight.

71
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Which of the following is frequently used as an autograft to replace the mandible in a radical neck dissection?

Select one:

a. clavicle

b. radius

c. fibula

d. humerus

fibula

72
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Which of the following is NOT a category of tonsil tissue?

Select one:

a. laryngeal

b. palatine

c. lingual

d. pharyngeal

laryngeal

73
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Davis and McIvor are names of which type of instrument?

Select one:

a. handheld retractor

b. micro instruments

c. mouth gags

d. powered drills

mouth gags

74
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A tuning fork is a useful tool during parotidectomy to safely identify branches of the seventh (VII) cranial nerve.

Select one:

True

False

False

75
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Baron, Frazier, House, and Rosen are names of which type of instrument?

Select one:

a. suction

b. pick

c. forceps

d. knife

suction

76
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Which of the following are classified as tonsils but are routinely referred to as adenoids and tend to atrophy with age?

Select one:

a. lingual

b. pharyngeal

c. laryngeal

d. palatine

pharyngeal

77
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Which objective-power lens is MOST frequently used for microlaryngoscopy?

Select one:

a. 200 mm

b. 350 mm

c. 300 mm

d. 400 mm

400 mm

78
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What is the term for creating a surgical opening into the tympanic membrane?

Select one:

a. antrostomy

b. septoplasty

c. turbinectomy

d. myringotomy

myringotomy

79
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What tissue type are the palatine tonsils?

Select one:

a. lymphoid

b. serosal

c. fascial

d. mucosal

lymphoid

80
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Which procedure would require 4 mm or 5 mm, 0°, or angled lenses and a navigation system for intraoperative guidance?

Select one:

a. SMR

b. radical neck dissection

c. Caldwell-Luc

d. FESS

FESS

81
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In which of the following procedures would the surgical technologist need to have a spreader and a hook ready for use?

Select one:

a. tonsillectomy

b. tracheotomy

c. myringotomy

d. septoplasty

tracheotomy

82
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What is the name of the double-action, cupped, forward-angled forceps used to resect portions of the nasal septum?

Select one:

a. Kerrison

b. Cottle

c. Aufricht

d. Jansen-Middleton

Jansen-Middleton

83
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Which of the paranasal sinuses are MOST superior and can be singular or divided?

Select one:

a. frontal

b. sphenoid

c. maxillary

d. ethmoid

frontal

84
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Which surgical procedure would be performed for excision of a cholesteatoma?

Select one:

a. mastoidectomy

b. adenoidectomy

c. Caldwell-Luc

d. radical neck dissection

mastoidectomy

85
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Where is the soft palate located in relation to the nasal cavity?

Select one:

a. posterior and superior

b. anterior and superior

c. posterior and inferior

d. anterior and inferior

posterior and inferior

86
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All of the following are methods of performing a turbinectomy EXCEPT:

Select one:

a. laser

b. inferior

c. percutaneous

d. microdebrider

percutaneous

87
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Which of the following is all that is necessary for instrument setup for bilateral myringotomy tube (BMT) placement?

Select one:

a. basin set

b. Mayo stand

c. kick bucket

d. back table

Mayo stand

88
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Epistaxis is more commonly known as an acute:

Select one:

a. ear infection

b. nose bleed

c. allergic reaction

d. upper respiratory inflammation

nose bleed

89
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Which name is common to knives, needles, picks, and suction tips used in otologic procedures?

Select one:

a. house

b. Rosen

c. alligator

d. Bellucci

Rosen

90
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What is the MOST common cause of nasal polyps?

Select one:

a. smoking

b. arid environment

c. cocaine use

d. allergic rhinitis

allergic rhinitis

91
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Antrostomy rasps would be used in procedures involving which anatomical structure(s)?

Select one:

a. lacrimal ducts

b. facial sinuses

c. semicircular canals

d. external auditory meatus

facial sinuses

92
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Walters, Caldwell, lateral, and submental radiographic views are used to establish diagnosis for which anatomical area?

Select one:

a. sinus cavities

b. inner ear canal

c. oropharynx

d. temporomandibular joint

sinus cavities

93
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What is the name of the long, thin, cupped, pistol-grip type handled forceps used in many nasal procedures?

Select one:

a. Takahashi

b. McIvor

c. Aufricht

d. Cottle

Takahashi

94
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Which type of study would be used to diagnose sleep apnea?

Select one:

a. electronystagmography

b. CT scanning

c. videostroboscopy

d. polysomnography

polysomnography

95
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Which diagnostic study is best at delineating between soft tissue and bony structures for diagnosing sinus conditions?

Select one:

a. CT scan

b. audiogram

c. MRI scan

d. angiogram

CT scan

96
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Which part of the tympanic membrane is fibrous, largest, and where drainage tubes are inserted?

Select one:

a. umbo

b. pars tensa

c. annulus

d. pars flaccida

pars tensa

97
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What chronically occurring condition is often the reason for placement of myringotomy tubes in one or both ears?

Select one:

a. sinusitis

b. otitis media

c. tracheitis

d. rhinitis

otitis media

98
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Which acute infection appears in bony air cells after approximately 10 to 14 days following an otitis media infection, and if untreated, it may result in meningitis or encephalitis?

Select one:

a. tonsillitis

b. mastoiditis

c. rhinitis

d. adenoiditis

mastoiditis

99
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n myringotomy procedures, what does "PE" stand for?

Select one:

a. pressure equalizing

b. peripheral examination

c. partial expulsion

d. pus exudate

pressure equalizing

100
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What is the term for bony overgrowth of the stapes?

Select one:

a. multiple sclerosis

b. otosclerosis

c. atherosclerosis

d. arteriosclerosis

otosclerosis