Pharmacology Final All Past Paper Questions

Define the term pharmacology and write, what of the pharmacology subdivisions?

A science that studies the actions of drugs and the changes it causes on the living organisms
What a drug does and how it acts
interaction of chemical substances with living cells, tissues, and organisms.
It also deals with the side effects of drugs, drug interactions, and with the therapeutic application of drugs
Subdivision:
PHARMACOKINETICS
The processes that determine the concentration of drugs in body fluids and tissues over time, including drug absorption, distribution, biotransformation, and excretion. What the body does to the drug
PHARMACODYNAMICS
The study of the actions of drugs on target organs - by which drugs produce their physiologic effects. What the drug does to the body

List the pharmaceutical groups of drugs affecting the CNS (4 points)

anaesthetics (inhalant, intravenous, local)
anticonvulsants
CNS stimulants
analeptics
antiemetics
sedatives
opiates
anti-histamines (H1)

What are the advantages and disadvantages of common types of drug administration? (4 points)

oral
advantages: convenient, relatively safe and economical
disadvantages: cannot be used for drugs that are activated by gastric acid, for drugs that have a large first-pass effect, or that irritate the gut

IM
advantages: suitable for suspensions and oily vehicles, absorption is rapid from solutions and sustained from suspensions
disadvantages:
may be painful, cause bleeding if patient is receiving an anticoagulant

SC
advantages: suitable for suspensions and pellets, absorption is similar to IM but slower
disadvantages: cannot be used for drugs that irritate cutaneous tissue or drugs that must be given in large volumes

IV
advantages: bypass absorption to give immediate effect, allows for rapid titration of dosage, has 100% bioavailability
disadvantages: poses more risks for toxicity and tends to be more expensive

Sulfonamides - mechanism of action, how are they classified and examples, adverse effects (8 points)

mechanism: interfere with intermediary metabolism of folic acid by competitively inhibiting dihydropteroate synthase as they are p-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) structural analogues. This prevents purine and pyrimidine synthesis preventing synthesis of DNA which means the cells cannot divide. Bacteriostatic

division:
short acting: sulfathiazone, sulfacetamide, sulfisoxazole
intermediate acting: sulfadimidine, sulfadiazine, sulfatroxazole, sulfametoxazole
long acting: sulfadoxine, sulfadimethoxine, sulfamethoxypyridizine

adverse effects:
crystalluria
hepatitis
haemapoietic disturbances
acute toxic manifestations
myelin degradation of spinal cord
decreased egg production
conjunctivitis/keratitis

Anti-muscarinic drugs and their effects on the eye, GIT, urinary tract, cardiovascular system, and secretions

atropine, scopolamine;
eye: mydriasis, unresponsiveness to light, cycloplegia
GIT: antispasmodic, decreased motility, HCl production not affected;
cardiovascular system: low doses cause decreased cardiac rate, high doses cause slightly increased cardiac rate;
secretions: decreased (salivary, sweat, lacrimal), dry oral mucous membranes

Quinolones - mechanism of action, how they are classified and examples, adverse effects

mechanism: inhibit topoisomerase IV and DNA gyrase enzymes needed for supercoiling, replication and separation of circular bacterial DNA. Bactericidal

division:
1st generation: nalidixin acid, oxolinic acid, flumequine
2nd generation: enrofloxacin, danofloxacin, marbofloxacin
3rd generation: orbifloxacin, pradofloxacin, levofloxacin
4th generation: trovafloxacin, moxifloxacin, gemifloxacin

adverse effects:
retinal degradation
neurotoxic (convulsions)
epileptogenic
vomiting and diarrhoea
dermal reactions and photosensitisation
haemolytic anaemia

What are the modes of administration of drugs and give examples?

topical: ointments, solutions, emulsions, eye-drops, ear-drops

enteral
oral: tablet, pills, powder, solution
rectal: suppositories
sublingual
buccal

parenteral
intravenous (IV)
intramuscular (IM)
subcutaneous (SC)
intraperitoneal (IP)
(intraarticular, intrathecal, transdermal, inhalational)

What are the pharmacodynamic drug-drug interactions?

synergism/potentiation: combined effect of two or more drugs is greater than the sum of their effects when given separately e.g sulfonamides + trimethoprim;

summation/additivity: when the effect ogf two drugs given in combination equals mathematical summation of their effects when given alone e.g. penicillin G + streptomycin;

antagonism: when two or more drugs have opposite effects on the body and may block or reduce effectiveness of one or more drugs
competitive antagonism: when agonist and antagonist occupy the same receptor sites e.g. histamine + antihistamines e.g. d-tubocurarin (myelorelaxant) + acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
non-competitive antagonism: when agonist and antagonist act upon different sites of target organs e.g strychnine (causes spinal convulsions by stimulating the medulla) + d-tubocurarin (elicits weakness and muscle paralysis by blocking acetylcholine in the motor end plate

Symptomatic therapy is?
a. Using the substances which the organism is not able to produce in sufficient amounts
b. Destroying the ethiological agent causing disease (antibodies against bacteria)
c. Treating the symptoms
d. Using very low drug concentrations (subliminal doses) for treating diseases

c

With regard to drug- receptor binding:
a. A competitive antagonist has no intrinsic activity
b. A partial antagonists has less receptor affinity than a full agonist
c. KD (the dissociation constant) is maximal intrinsic efficacy

a

Concerning renal excretion?
a. Almost all drugs are filtered by the glomerulus
b. A lipid-soluble, filtered drug will likely be reabsorbed by passive diffusion
c. pH partitioning (drug is ionized at urinary pH) enhances excretion
d. Weak acids are excreted faster in alkaline urinary pH

b, c, d

List 3 classes of drugs interaction. Write an example of interaction to each class?

Pharmaceutical interaction.
Drug interaction in vitro during prep of drugs (drug incompatibility) e.g. menthol & phenol (solid drugs) become liquid when combined.
Drug interaction in vivo in organisms before the pharmacokinetic phase of drugs (i.e. during the disintegration of drug before absorption) e.g. reaction between tetracycline and Ca, Mg, or Al ions may decrease tetracycline blood level below the therapeutical minimal concentration (because together they form an unabsorbed complex compound)

Pharmacokinetic interaction
Interaction of drugs during the pharmacokinetic phase may occur in any of its steps (absorption, distribution, biotransformation and excretion).
E.g. effects on biotransformation inhibition of vitamin B2 (thiamin) because of insufficient transport of glucose in intestine.

Pharmacodynamic interaction
These interactions resemble those which occur at drug binding to plasma protein
There is a difference in that the binding to specific receptors of target cells is followed by a specific effect of the drug.
The specific receptors are able to react with agonist and antagonist.
During the pharmacodynamics interaction, there are 2+ substances competing for the same receptor which drug will be bound depends on the selection affinity to the receptor, on the concentration of drug present and on receptor seats.
E.g. action of antihistamines which are able to reduce the effect of histamine

Antagonist effects -Specific receptor antagonists are available for certain classes of drugs, e.g. α- and β-adrenergics, cholinergics, opiates, and H1 and H2 histaminergics
These antagonists are used therapeutically to block or reverse agonist activity, however antagonism may result in reduced efficacy, e.g. -
Antihistamine drugs have weak anti-cholinergic actions that reduce the effect of miotics in glaucoma
Bacteriostatic ATBs, e.g. tetracycline, slow bacterial growth; therefore these agents may antagonise the action of bactericidal cell wall inhibitors, e.g. penicillins, cephalosporins, which are most effective against rapidly growing organisms
Antagonism can be competitive or non-competitive

Additive effects -
Drugs with similar mechanisms of action may exhibit additive effects when administered in combination. Additive interactions are observed with many classes of drugs, including hypnotics, sedatives, tranquilisers
Synergistic effects -
Drug combinations that produce a therapeutic or toxic effect that is greater than the sum of each drug's action are termed synergistic

Circle the group of antibacterials with bacteriostatic effect?
a. Macrolides
b. Tetracyclines
c. Sulfonamides
d. Beta-lactams
e. Aminoglycosides
f. Quinolones
g. Amphenicols

a, b, c, g

Mechanism of action of beta-lactamase antibiotics is based on?
a. Competitive inhibition of para-aminobenzoic acid
b. The binding of 50s subunit of bacterial ribosomes
c. The binding on the specific binding protein
d. The inhibition the active site of the transpeptidase enzyme that cross-links the peptidoglycan strands
e. Activation of autolytic enzymes

d, e

Cephalosporins are indicated to treatment of?
a. Skin infections
b. Meningitis
c. Urinary tract infections
d. Osteomyelitis and arthritis
e. Pneumonia
f. Diarrhoea

b, c, e

Which of the amfenicols are used to therapy of infections of respiratory and gastrointestinal tract?
a. Chloramphenicol
b. Thiamphenicol
c. Florenicol
d. Azidamphenicol

b, c

Tetracyclines are indicated in?
a. Local, organs and systemic infections
b. Nephritis and hepatitis
c. Osteomyelitis and arthritis
d. Yeast infections

a

The main adverse effects of aminoglycosides are?

Ototoxicity:
Damage and destruction of sensory cells in cochlea & vestibular organ of ear
Usually irreversible
Leads to nystagmus, incoordination, auditory disturbance, deafness,
Nephrotoxicity:
Damage to kidney tubules
Function recovers if the use of drugs are stopped - reversible
More likely to occur in patients with pre-existing renal disease or conditions in which urine volume is reduced & concomitant use of other nephrotoxic agents
Paralysis:
Rare but serious reaction is paralysis caused by neuromuscular blockade, inhibition of Ca2+ uptake
Usually seen only if the agents are given concurrently with neuromuscular-blocking agents

Lincomycin and clindamycin belong to?
a. Macrolides
b. Aminoglycosides
c. Lincosamides
d. Tetracyclines

c

Rifampicin (rifampin) is used in treatment of?
a. Mastitis in cows
b. Chronic granulomatous skin infection in dog
c. Dysentery in swine
d. Mycoplasma infections in poultry

a, b

Sulfonamides are the structural analogues of
a. Deoxyribonucleic acid
b. Para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA)
c. Folic acid
d. Clavulanic acid

b

Quinolones are contraindicated?
a. In dogs during the rapid growth phase (between 2 and 8 months of age)
b. In geriatric animals
c. In animals with pyodermia
d. In animals with known or suspected CNS disorders
e. In animals with mma-syndrome
f. In animals in pregnancy and during lactation

a

The group of antihelmintics belong?
a. Antiprotozoals
b. Antitrematodals
c. Antinematodal
d. Anticestodal
e. Ectoparasiticides (pesticides)

b, c, d

Metronidazole and dimetrazole are used for treatment of
a. Coccidiosis
b. Antitrichomoniasis and antihistomoniasis
c. Metritis
d. The CNS disorders

b

Mebendazol acts as an
a. Antinematodal
b. Antitrematodal
c. Anticestodal
d. Antiectoparasitical agent

a, c

Macrocyclic lactones are not effective against
a. Nematodes
b. Trematodes
c. Cestodes
d. Ectoparasites

b, c

Which of the following antiparasitic drugs are contraindicated for some dog breeds (collie, sheltie, long-haired whippet, Australian shepherd)
a. Moxidectin
b. Nitroscanate
c. Ivermectin
d. Eprinomectin

c

Cypermetrine is an
a. Antinematodical
b. Antitrematodical
c. Anticestodical
d. Antiectoparasitical (pesticide) agent

d

Which of the following agents is not local anaesthetic
a. Procaine
b. Tetracaine
c. Metacaine
d. Tiletamine
e. Lidocaine

c, d

Azaperone is used as
a. Anticonvulsive
b. Neuroleptic
c. Injection anaesthetic
d. Ataractic agent

b

Alpha-2-adrenergic agonistic sedatives are
a. Diazepam and zolazepam
b. Detomidine and medetomidine
c. Xylazine and romifidine
d. Azaperone and droperidol

b, c

The seizures of smooth muscle (GIT) are relaxed by
a. Meloxicam
b. Atipamezole
c. Metamizole
d. Triamcinolone

c

Benazepril
a. Stimulates the dopamine receptors
b. Stimulates the production of surfactant
c. Inhibits the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
d. Inhibits the enzyme phosphodiesterase (PDE)

c

Mucolytics
a. Break down respiratory mucus & enhance clearance
b. Decrease the frequency and intensity of cough
c. Stimulate the removal of mucus by coughing
d. Stimulate the β2-adrenergic receptors in bronchial smooth muscle

a, c

What are the laxatives? List their division according the mode of action and write the active substances in each group?

Laxatives \= drugs tending to stimulate or facilitate evacuation of the bowels.
Emollient laxatives: Mineral oil (liquid paraffin) or white petroleum
Simple bulk laxatives (hydrophilic colloids): Polysaccharide derivatives such as methylcellulose & carboxymethylcellulose sodium.
Osmotic laxatives.
Mg salts such as Mg sulphate
Na salts such as Na sulphate, Na phosphate and K sodium tartrate.
Sugar alcohols such as mannitol & sorbitol; Lactulose is a synthetic disaccharide
Irritant cathartics: Emodin, sena, aloins, castor oil, raw linseed oil, phenolphtalein and Bisacodyl (vegetable oils are indirect acting cathartics).
Neuromuscular purgatives: Cholinergic agents such as neostigmine, carbachol and bethanechol

An antiemetic effect has
a. Xylazine
b. Metoclopromide
c. Dimeticon
d. Membuton

b

The steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
a. Inhibit the synthesis of cytokines
b. Inhibit the release of inflammatory mediators
c. Inhibit the enzyme dihydropteroate synthetase
d. Inhibit the enzyme hyaluronsynthetase

a, b

Flunixin is indicated in
a. Bronchopneumonia
b. Diarrhoea
c. Acute & chronic inflammatory disease of skeletal apparatus
d. Heart failure

b, c

Oxytocin is indicated
a. In atony of uterus after parturition
b. In agalactia
c. In spasms of uterus
d. As a protective of pregnancy

a, b

Chlorhexidine is used as
a. Anesthetic
b. Antiflogistic
c. Antiseptic
d. Antiparasitic agent

c

Each drug has got the following names

Chemical name: specifies the chemical structure. Interest primarily to the chemist
Non-proprietary name: suitable for health care professionals, provide some indication of the class the drug belongs. E.g. oxacillin \= a penicillin
Proprietary/trade name: registered trademark belonging to a particular drug manufacturer. May indicate the therapeutic effect - e.g. Domosedan \= sedative
The official name: the name listed in Pharmacopoeia

Each drug has got the following names
a. Chemical
b. Physical
c. Non-proprietary
d. Trade

a, c, d

Define the dose, optimum dose & describe in detail 2 aspects of dosage

DOSE - amount of drug administered to an animal at any particular time
OPTIMUM DOSE - historical term used to estimate the amount of drug that, when administered by a particular route to a certain species, is most likely to produce a certain intensity of response
ASPECTS OF DOSE:
Size
Body weight (mg/kg) - will tend to under dose smaller animals and overdose larger animals; however, for most therapeutic agents, the therapeutic margin is large so this is clinically irrelevant
Body surface area (mg/m2) - more precise method of drug administration
Time: Frequency of dosing - maintain effective drug concentration in the blood

Pharmacokinetics is the effect of the..... and pharmacodynamics is the effect of the.....
a. Drug on a drug. body on the drug
b. Body on the drug. drug on a drug
c. Drug on the body. body on the drug
d. Body on the drug. drug on the body
e. Drug on a drug. drug on a drug

d

Which of the following drug permeation mechanisms is used for peptides, amino acids, glucose & other large or insoluble molecules?
a. Aqueous diffusion
b. Lipid diffusion
c. Carrier molecules
d. Endocytosis & exocytosis

c, d

Which of the following biotransformation reactions is phase II and not phase I?
a. Oxidations
b. Reductions
c. Conjugations
d. Deaminations
e. Hydrolysis

c

Name the types of receptors

Hormone & neurotransmitter receptors
Enzymes
Membrane transport proteins (ion channels and transporters)
Other macromolecules (nucleic acids, membrane lipids)

How to classify dose?

According to the effect:
Subliminal dose - without therapeutic effect
Liminal/threshold dose -min dose that will produce a detectable degree of any given effect
Minimum therapeutic dose - after administration very weak/short effect.
Median therapeutic dose - ED50 - most frequently used in therapy. ED50 - the dose that produces a desired effect in half the test population
Maximum therapeutic dose - the max dose eliciting desired effect; exceeding of this dose leads to toxicity
Toxic dose - the amount of drug that produces toxic effect
Median toxic dose - TD50 - the dose that would cause a specific toxic effect in 50% of experimental population
Median lethal dose - LD50 - the amount of drug that would kill 50% of the population tested

Classify the antibiotic agents according to the mechanism of action and name the examples of pharmacological groups to each mode

Cell envelope antibiotics - cell wall synthesis inhibitors: β-lactams, glycopeptides, polymyxins
Protein synthesis inhibitors: tetracyclines, amphenicols, aminoglycosides, macrolides,
Nucleic acid synthesis inhibitors: rifamycins

Amoxicillin and ampicillin are penicillins
a. With narrow spectrum (natural penicillins)
b. With extended spectrum (e.g. NB ureidopenicillins)
c. Penicillinase-resistant
d. With broad spectrum (anti-pseudomonal penicillins)

d

Tetracyclines
a. Inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the 30s subunit of microbial ribosomes
b. Inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the 50s subunit of microbial ribosomes
c. Inhibit the synthesis of cell wall
d. Inhibit the enzyme transpeptidase

a

Which of the macrolides is mostly found in clinical applications in veterinary medicine?
a. Erythromycin
b. Tylosin
c. Tilmicosin
d. Azithromycin
e. Tulathromycin

a, b, c

To the group of aminoglycosides belong
a. Lincomycin and clindamycin
b. Streptomycin, neomycin, kanamycin
c. Gentamycin, amikacin, spectinomycin
d. Rifampicin and rifaximin

b, c

Valnemuline is used for treatment of
a. Vulvovaginitis in mares
b. Dysentery in swine
c. Acute masitis of cows

b

Bacitracine is used to treat
a. Upper respiratory tract infections
b. Skin, ear & eye infections
c. Gastrointestinal infections
d. Bovine mastitis

b

Write the main adverse effect of sulphonamides in animals

UTI
Crysalluria
Hemopoietic disturbances
Acute toxic manifestations
Hepatitis
Myelin degeneration of spinal cord
Decreased egg production
Conjunctivitis/keratitis

Effect of quinolones is
a. Bacteriostatic
b. Bactericidal
c. In low doses bacteriostatic
d. In high doses bactericidal

b

Which of the listed agents are used to control coccidiosis?
a. Metronidazole, dimetridazole, ronidazole
b. Homidium, imidocarb, quinuronium
c. Monensin, lasalocid, salinomycin
d. Diclazuril, nicarbazin, robenidin

c, d

Febantel is an
a. Antinematodical
b. Antitrematocidal
c. Anticestodical
d. Antiprotozoal agent

a, c

Which of the following belong to ectoparasiticides?
a. Benzimidazoles
b. Macrocyclic lactones
c. Halogenated salicylanilides
d. Ionophores

b, c

Amitraz is effective against
a. Fleas and lice
b. Ticks
c. Mange in cattle, pig and dog
d. Tapeworms

b, c

Underline the correct statement
Penicillin G [is - is not] suitable for PO admin
Chloramphenicol [is allowed - is prohibited] for treatment in food animals
Bacitracin has a [bacteriostatic - bactericidal] effect
Diaveridine has got major affinity to dihydrofolate reductase of [protozoa - bacteria]
Albendazole [has no - has] embryotoxic effect in recommended dose

is not
is prohibited
bactericidal
protozoa
has no

Halothane is used to
a. Induce anaesthesia
b. Alleviate the joints pain
c. Regulate of cardiac arrhytmias
d. Improve the hepatic metabolism

a

Propofol is
a. General IV anaesthesia
b. Neuroleptic
c. Parasympathomimetic
d. Sedative

a

Drugs suppressing fear, tension & aggression in animals are called
a. Sedatives
b. Anticonvulsives
c. Tranquilisers
d. Analeptics

a, c

Romifidine is used as
a. Neuroleptic
b. Anticonvulsive
c. Sedative
d. Spasmolytic drug

c

As an antitussive agent is used
a. Theophyline
b. Dextromethorphan
c. Clenbuterol
d. Acetylcysteine
e. Codeine

b, e

Effect of meloxicam is
a. Anti-inflammatory
b. Antipyretic
c. Analgetic
d. Chondroprotective

a, b, c

List the group of anti-hypertensive agents & write the examples of active substances to each group

Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors - e.g. captopril, benazepril, enalapril
Calcium channel blockers - e.g. verapamil, diltiazem, amlodipine
Alpha-blockers - e.g. prazosin
Beta-blockers - e.g. atenolol, esmolol, metoprolol, propranolol
Diuretics - e.g. chlorothiazide, hydrochlorothiazide
Other hypotensives - nitroglycerin, nitroprusside

Salivary stimulants
a. Increase the appetite in animal to consume feed & promote digestion
b. Relieve or stop the symptoms of diarrhoea
c. Operate supplementation in the disorders of energy supply precursors in digestive tract of polygastric animals
d. Stimulate the production and secretion of bile, pancreatic and gastric enzyme

a

Dimethicon is indicated in
a. Foam tympany in ruminants
b. Acute bloat in rabbits
c. Hepatopathies of ruminants and horses
d. Vomiting in dogs after chemotherapy
e. Ketoses of ruminants

a, b

Frequency and force of uterine contraction is stimulated by
a. Prolactin
b. Oxytocin
c. Estradiol
d. Ergometrine

b

Which of the following agents is effective against the dermatophytes?
a. Zinc oxide
b. Tannic acid
c. Ketoconazole
d. Itraconazole
e. Eniloconazole
f. Coal tar
g. Selenium sulfide

c, d, e

Iodophors are used as
a. Anticoccidial agents
b. Emetic agents
c. Antiseptic agents
d. Chondroprotecive agents

c

Tocopherol is indicated in case of
a. Softening of the bone
b. Visual disturbance
c. Megaloblastic anaemia
d. Myodystrophy

d

Write the division of anticoagulant agents & list the main representatives in each group

Thrombin inhibitors - e.g. heparin
Vit K antagonists - e.g. warfarin, Dicumarol
Calcium chelators (in vitro anticoagulants) - e.g. sodium citrate, sodium oxalate
Fibrinolytic drugs - e.g. streptokinase, urokinase

Match the number of pharmacological group to the active substance and remember to write the correct number to each
a. Phenoxymethyl penicillin
b. Colistin
c. Atropine
d. Diaveridine
e. Doxycycline
f. Enrofloxacin
g. Acepromazine
h. Ketoprofen
i. Pimobendan
j. Procaine
1. potentiated sulphonamide agent
2. polypeptide antibiotic
3. fluoroquinolone of 2nd gen
4. fenothiazine neuroleptic
5. natural penicillin
6. local anaesthetic
7. vasodilator, anti-hypertensive agent
8. NSAID
9. parasympatholytic
10. tetracycline antibiotic

a5
b2
c9
d1
e10
f3
g4
h8
i7
j6

Define the main assortment of veterinary pharmaceutical preparations (division, administration)

Medicinal product - a medication (a.s.) or mixture of medications and auxiliary substances
Medication - medicinal substance (a.s.) of human, plant, animal, chemical or natural origin
Auxiliary substance - is chemically uniform or non-uniform substance without therapeutic effect, which is used for enabling or facilitating the drug production/preparation and its application or for improving the quality or stability and bioavailability of drug
Veterinary medicinal product - the product (preparation) intended for animals including immunological preparations, and mixtures for feed medication
Officinal (official) drugs - Individually prepared medicinal products which are published in national pharmacopoeias
Simple officinal drugs - consist of one compound only e.g. potassium iodide etc.
Composed officinal drugs - officinal mixtures of drugs e.g. "Iodi solutio spirituosa"
Preparations manufactured by the pharmaceutical industry - Mass produced medicinal products (MMP)
Preparations intended predominantly for direct therapeutic purposes - used for treatment of diseases, which are usually acute & require immediate treatment. E.g. "PENICILIN DEPOT" or "THIOPENTAL"
Manufactured medicinal mixtures for animals - differ from preparations of 1st group in that they are prepared in big packages, they contain lower concentration of active drug & a higher amount of vehiculum, and they are used for mass administration to animals in feed and/or in drinking water.
Biofactor supplements are destined to reach an optimal nutritional state & productivity of farm animals & to maximize production/yield. They contain specifically active substances such as vitamins, minerals, synthetic amino acids, etc. They are produced as additives with all feeding mixtures destined for each species of animals

Chemical name of the drug
a. Is a precise description of chemical constitution & indicates the arrangement of atoms
b. Is selected by pharmaceutical company and is patent protected
c. Is a proprietary name which is shorter and more euphonious than the trade name
d. Is the most used name of drugs (by pharmacist and physicians)

a

Causal therapy is
a. Using the substances which the organism is not able to produce in sufficient amounts
b. Destroying the etiological agent causing disease (antibiotics against bacteria)
c. Treating the symptoms (fever, cough) using very low drug concentrations (subliminal doses) for treating diseases

b

Which of the following statements concerning Phase I metabolic reactions are correct?
a. Addition of a glucuronyl group is an example of a phase I reaction
b. A major source of phase i reactions is the cytochrome p450 enzyme system located in the liver smooth endoplasmic reticulum
c. The products of phase i reactions are usually more lipid soluble than the parental drug

b

The process in which a substance is engulfed by the cell membrane & carried into the cell body.....newly formed vesicle inside the membrane is called
a. Lipid diffusion
b. Carrier-mediated transport
c. Exocytosis
d. Endocytosis

d

Definition of therapeutic index of a drug is
a. Ratio given by the effective dose divided by the toxic dose
b. Ratio given by the lethal dose divided by the therapeutic dose
c. Ratio given by the subliminal dose divided by the maximum therapeutic dose
d. Ratio given by the median therapeutic dose divided by the maximum therapeutic dose

b

Name & shortly describe the 3 fundamental processes of renal drug excretion

Renal excretion is the principal process of elimination for drugs that are predominantly ionized at physiologic pH and for compounds with limited lipid solubility. Drugs excreted unchanged (not altered by a metabolic reaction) mainly in urine include many ATBs (most penicillins, cephalosporins, aminoglycosides, and oxytetracycline), most diuretics, the competitive neuromuscular blocking agents, and possibly the cardiac glycoside digoxin
1. Glomerular filtration
Filtration of free molecules (unbound) in plasma
In the glomerular (Bowman's capsule), all molecules of low molecular weight are filtered out of the blood
Most drugs are readily filtered from the blood unless they are tightly bound to large molecules such as plasma protein or have been incorporated into red blood cells
Glomerular filtration rate varies from individual to individual but in healthy individuals the normal range is 110-130 ml/min (≈ 180 L/day)
2. Carrier-mediated excretion
Active tubular secretion of certain polar organic compounds by the proximal tubular cells
Competition among the acidic or basic drugs can occur for the secretion process
3. Passive tubular reabsorption
pH dependent
Non-ionic diffusion of lipid-soluble substances (weak organic electrolytes) in distal portion of nephron
Compounds that have low lipid solubility & those that are predominantly ionized in blood plasma are rapidly excreted by the kidney, whereas weak organic electrolytes, which are partly non-ionized & lipid-soluble, are excreted more slowly

Which of the following antimicrobials influence the permeability of cell membranes
a. Sulfonamides
b. Tetracyclines
c. Polyene antibiotics
d. Aminoglycosides

c