Results for "E. Coli"

E. coli

Bacterial Transformation Using pGLO in E. Coli

Enterotoxic E. Coli and Calf Diarrhea

Disease of the Day - E. coli O157:H7

E. coli and Salmonella

DNA Replication in E. coli

E. coli

Enteric E. coli

Question: Bile is a substance secreted to help digest fats. Bile is stored in the: Answer: Gallbladder Question: Which element in the protein hemoglobin, found in red blood cells, is responsible for binding oxygen? Answer: Iron Question: When a blood vessel is injured, which of the following is responsible for clotting? Answer: Platelets Question: If CaCl2 is mixed with Na2SO4 in aqueous solution, which of the following is a possible product? Answer: NaCl Question: The Earth is about 4.5 billion years old. About how many years ago did life first appear? Answer: 3.5 billion years Question: The sun’s energy reaches the Earth’s surface primarily in the form of: Answer: Visible light radiation Question: Which type of rock would likely be found at the bottom of a river bed? Answer: Sedimentary Question: Which of the following statements about the Earth is true? Answer: The mantle makes up the largest percentage of the Earth’s volume Question: If an unbalanced force acts on an object, then the object will begin to accelerate according to: Answer: Newton’s Second Law Question: In meiosis, one parent cell becomes how many daughter cells? Answer: 4 Question: The potential energy of an object with a mass of 5kg that is placed 20 meters above the surface of the earth is most nearly: Answer: 981 Joules Question: One of the reasons bacteria can be so deadly is because they multiply very quickly. E. coli has a doubling time of around 15 minutes. This means that if 100 bacteria are left alone for 2 hours, they will multiply to become: Answer: 25,600 Bacteria Question: Organisms which help one another survive by providing a mutual benefit to each other are known as: Answer: Symbionts Question: In taxonomy, which classification comes after ‘family’? Answer: Genus Question: All of the following are phenotypic traits except for: Answer: Missing 22nd chromosome Question: The cell membrane is a structure composed primarily of: Answer: Lipid Question: Of the following layers of the atmosphere, which is the closest to the earth’s surface and contains the majority of clouds? Answer: Troposphere Question: Which of the following body systems is most closely associated with the immune system? Answer: Lymphatic System Question: One of the primary characteristics of a bacteria is its: Answer: Lack of a nuclear membrane Question: Which of the following planets has a perfectly circular orbit? Answer: None Question: Sound waves will travel the fastest in a medium that is: Answer: The most dense Question: A calorie is actually a measure of energy, and is equivalent to how many Joules? Answer: 4.18 Question: What is the molecular weight of the compound C2H5O? Answer: 45 Question: Craig ran 2.5 miles on his afternoon run. How many feet did he run? Answer: 13,200 feet Question: The earth’s surface is covered by approximately what percent water? Answer: 70% Question: Blood that flows back from the body will enter the heart through the: Answer: Right Atrium Question: A nerve impulse is transmitted through your nervous system primarily by: Answer: An electric potential Question: All magnets have two poles which can be used to predict the direction of their magnetic waves. These two poles are the: Answer: South and North Question: Approximately how many bones exist in the human body? Answer: 200 Question: The nucleus of an atom is composed of: Answer: Protons and neutrons Question: What is the second most abundant gas in the atmosphere? Answer: Oxygen Question: As light passes through a substance, the incident angle changes, meaning the light’s entering angle is different than its exiting angle. This is an example of: Answer: Refraction Question: If one tectonic plate slides under another, the process is known as: Answer: Subduction Question: Carbon dioxide can be consumed and converted into glucose by what type of organism? Answer: Plants Question: Two separate weather fronts will have air that is of different: Answer: Density Question: Plants are autotrophs, meaning that they: Answer: Are able to produce their own food Question: Plant and animal cells both have cell membranes and nuclear membranes. However, plant cells have a structure that animal cells do not, known as a: Answer: Cell Wall Question: Muscles in the human body require what energy compound to function? Answer: ATP Question: When a human cell divides in mitosis, the two daughter cells will each have: Answer: 46 Chromosomes Question: In an electromagnetic wave, as the frequency of the wave becomes greater, what becomes shorter? Answer: The wavelength Question: Which of the following time periods is the longest? Answer: Eon Question: In the lily flower, the red color is dominant and the white color is recessive. This means that if you cross a homozygous red flower with a white one, the offspring will be: Answer: All red Question: Which of the following is a characteristic of the tundra ecological biome? Answer: Landscape dominated by shrubs and short trees Question: A train travels at 25 mph for 3 hours. How far did the train move? Answer: 75 miles Question: A solution contains 0.1 molar hydrogen ions (H+). This means the solution is likely: Answer: Around pH 1

E. coli Testing

Sketchy Microbiology: Escherichia coli (E. Coli), ETEC, EHEC

E. coli and Associated Diarrheal Diseases

lect 17: E. coli

Primary adrenal insufficiency = problem at level of adrenal glands Causes? Addison’s disease Pathophys? Autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands Associated with hyperpigmentation POMC is precursor to both ACTH and MSH PAI → lack of negative feedback → high ACTH Lab findings? ACTH high Aldosterone low Destruction of zona glomerulosa Renin high Hypotension → RAAS activation Electrolytes Na+ low, K+ high CBC Eosinophils high Pathophys? Glucocorticoids → eosinophil apoptosis. Lack of glucocorticoids cause eosinophilia. Dx? Cosyntropin testing → no rise in cortisol Adrenal glands aren’t working, so no response to ACTH. Tx? prednisone/hydrocortisone/dexamethasone + fludrocortisone (mineralocorticoid) Stress-dose steroids for surgery, serious illness, etc. Secondary adrenal insufficiency = problem at level of pituitary, reduced ACTH release Causes? MC is prolonged steroid use → ACTH suppression Sheehan’s syndrome (infarction of pituitary) pregnancy Pituitary tumors (ACTH-producing tumor) Lab findings? ACTH low Anterior pituitary is being inhibited Aldosterone normal Zona glomerulosa under control of RAAS system Renin normal Electrolytes Na+ & K+ unaffected (Aldosterone levels are normal) CBC Neutrophilia due to demargination (if pt was recently taking steroids) Dx? Cosyntropin testing → rise in cortisol Adrenal gland is functional Tx? Glucocorticoids Do not need to replace mineralocorticoids since adrenals are functional and aldosterone is under RAAS control Stress-dose steroids for surgery, serious illness, etc. AI with a history of nuchal rigidity and purpuric skin lesions → Waterhouse-Friedrichson syndrome Pathophys? AI 2/2 hemorrhagic infarction of the adrenal glands in the context of Neisseria meningitidis infection Adrenal synthesis enzymes If the enzyme starts with 1 → HTN (high mineralocorticoids) and hypokalemia If the second # is 1 → virilization (high androgens) E.g. 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency → HTN & virilization E.g. 21 hydroxylase deficiency → virilization only E.g. 17-alpha hydroxylase deficiency → HTN only B12 deficiency Where does B12 come from? Animal products VS folic from plants Physiology R factor in saliva binds to B12 and protects it from acidity in the stomach. R factor protector -B12 travels to the duodenum. Parietal cells produce intrinsic factor, which travels to the duodenum. Pancreatic enzymes cleave B12 from R factor and B12 then binds IF. B12-IF complex is reabsorbed in the terminal ileum Reabsorption where? Terminal ileum Causes of B12 deficiency Extreme vegan Pernicious anemia Pancreatic enzyme deficiency Cystic Fibrosis Can’t cleave B12 from R factor Crohn’s Affects terminal ileum Lab markers Homocysteine HIGH MethlyManoicAcid HIGH Presentation? Megaloblastic anemia Subacute combined degeneration (of dorsal columns + lateral corticospinal tract) Peripheral neuropathy Dx of pernicious anemia? anti-IF Ab Folate deficiency Where does folate come from? Leafy things Causes of folate deficiency Poor diet (e.g. alcoholics, elderly) Phenytoin Lab markers Homocysteine HIGH MMA normal Presentation? Megaloblastic anemia Prophylaxis in HIV+ patients CD4 < 200 → PCP TMP-SMX, inhaled pentamidine, dapsone, atovaquone CD4 < 100 → Toxoplasm Treat: TMP-SMX CD4 < 50 → MAC Treat: Azithromycin If live in endemic area, CD4 < 250 → Coccidioides Immitis E.g. Arizona, Nevada, Texas, California Treat: Itraconazole If live in endemic area, CD4 < 150 → Histoplasma Capsulatum E.g. Kentucky, Ohio, Missouri Treat: Itraconazole Diabetes insipidus Dx? Water deprivation test Measure serum osmolality & urine osmolality Deprive pt of water Remeasure serum osmolality & urine osmolality If urine osmolality doesn’t go up → suspect DI Central DI → deficiency of ADH Pathophys? Supraoptic nucleus not making enough ADH Dx? Give desmopressin → urine osmolality increases significantly Nephrogenic DI → kidneys are not responding to ADH Dx? Give desmopressin → urine osmolality doesn’t change much Tx? Hydrochlorothiazide Unless 2/2 lithium, use amiloride or triametere Causes? Lithium SSRIs Carbamazepine Demeclocycline Tx of normovolemic hypernatremia? D5W to correct free water deficit Divine says NS, but most other resources I found said correct free water deficit Tx of hypovolemic hypernatremia? Give NS first until normal volume, then give D5W Consequence of correcting hypernatremia too rapidly? Cerebral edema Osteoarthritis Presentation? Old person with joint pain that gets worse throughout the day Risk Factr? Obesity vs decreases osteoporosis Imaging findings? Joint space narrowing Subchondral sclerosis Subchondral cysts Osteophytes Arthrocentesis findings? <2000 cells Tx? 1st line acetaminophen 2nd line NSAID (e.g. naproxen) 3rd line joint replacement surgery Returned from a business conference 1 week ago + Fever + Nonproductive cough + Abdominal pain + Hyponatremia → Legionella Dx? Urine antigen Tx? FQ or macrolide MaCroLide mnemonic = Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, Legionella What are the common causes of atypical PNA? Mycoplasma, Legionella, Chlamydia MC cause? Mycoplasma CXR findings? Interstitial infiltrates HY associations C. Psittaci → birds C. Burnetii → cows, goats, sheet Mycoplasma → college student w/ walking pneumonia Midsystolic click heard best at the apex. → mitral valve prolapse “Stenosnap & Proclick” Risk Factor? Connective tissue disease Marfarn Ehlers-Danlos ADPKD bilateral renal masses Classic demographic? Young woman psychiatric Pathophys? Myxomatous degeneration MVP vs aortic dissection: cystic medial necrosis Exam maneuvers Anything that increase amount of blood in LV → murmur softer Increase preload Increase afterload Anything that decreases amount of blood in LV → murmur louder Dx? Echo Scaly, itchy skin with yellowish crusting in the winter. → seborrheic dermatitis Tx? Topical antifungals e.g. ketoconazole or selenium sulfide shampoo Classic disease distribution? Hair → e.g. cradle cap Eyebrows Episodic/intermittent HTN + HA → pheochromocytoma Genetic disease associations MEN2A MEN2B VHL in brain (hemangioma) NF-1 growth in skin Pathophys? Catecholamine-secreting tumor Location? Adrenal medulla Posterior mediastinum Organ of Zuckerkandl (chromaffin cells along the aorta) Dx? 1st step: urine metanephrines If elevated → CT abdomen If nothing found on CT → MIBG scan Tx? Alpha blocker (e.g. phenoxybenzamine, phenotaline) THEN beta blocker Most common cause of a Lower GI Bleed in the elderly → diverticulosis Dx? Colonoscopy or barium enema Recall that you acutely do a CT scan for diverticulitis, then 6 weeks later colonoscopy to r/o cancer Ppx? Eat fiber Megaloblastic anemias Blood smear findings? Hypersegmented neutrophils MCV > 100 Classic patient demographic with folate deficiency? Alcoholics Elderly person with poor nutrition Folate synthesis inhibitors Pt with molar pregnancy → methotrexate Pulmonary issue? Pulmonary fibrosis HIV+ pt with ring-enhancing lesions → pyrimethamine-sulfadiazine Pyrimethamine inhibits DHFR AIDS pt on ppx for toxo → TMP-SMX TMP inhibits DHFR Use of leucovorin? Rescue bone marrow in setting of methotrexate toxicity Mechanism? Folinic acid analog CMV presentations Esophagitis → linear ulcers Colitis → post-transplant pt Retinitis → HIV pt with CD4 < 50 Congenital CMV → periventricular calcifications + hearing loss calcifications elsewhere → toxo Histology? Owl’s eye intranuclear inclusions Tx? Gancicyclovir Resistance? UL97 kinase mutation Tx for resistance? foscarnet CD4 < 200 + severe peripheral edema + frothy urine. → FSGS in HIV pt Variant classic in HIV+ pts? Collapsing variant Tx? Steroids + cyclophosphamide + ACE-I Indinavir AE? Kidney stones triad of fever, rash, and eosinophiluria → acute interstitial nephritis Drugs cause? Penicillins Tx? Stop the drug! Can add steroids if severe Vitamin D metabolism Liver converts Vit D to calcidiol (25OH-Vit D). Calcidiol goes to kidney. Alpha-1 hydroxylase converts calcidiol to calcitriol (1,25-OH Vit D). Common causes of Vitamin D deficiency CKD → 1-alpha hydroxyalse deficiency Liver disease → can’t make calcidiol CF → malabsorption Crohn’s → malabsorption Osteomalacia vs Rickets Osteomalacia in adults Rickets in kids Tx? Calcium + vit D Lab findings? Ca++ low Phos low Low in liver disease High in kidney disease (kidneys can’t get rid of phos) PTH high (2ary hyperpara) vs liver dx PTH low Alk phos Aspiration pneumonia Risk Factor? Alcoholism Dementia Neuromuscular problems (e.g. MG, ALS) Bugs? Anaerobes foul smelling Bacteroides FUsobacterium Peptostreptococcus Klebsiella → currant jelly sputum alcoholic Tx? Clindamycin CURB-65 criteria Purpose? Who to admit Cutoff? 2+ → hospitalize C = confusion U = uremia (BUN > 20) R = RR > 30 B = BP < 90/60 Age > 65 Drugs commonly used in PNA treatment Ceftriaxone Levofloxacin fluoroquinolone Macrolides - great for atypical PNA Pharmacological management of pulmonary arterial HTN Endothelin antagonists Bosentan ambrisentan PDE-5 inhibitors Sildenafil Tadalafil Prostacyclin analogs Iloprost Epoprostenol Treprostinil Causes? Young female → idiopathic PAH Mutation? BMPR2 55 yo F presents with a 5 week history of a rash on her forehead. PE reveals scaly macules with a sandpaper texture. → actinic keratosis Risk Factor? Sun exposure Tx? Topical 5-FU Possible dangerous sequelae? Squamous cell carcinoma Most likely disease sequelae? Resolution 1ary hyperparathyroidism 2ary hyperparathyroidism 3ary hyperparathyroidism Autonomous PTH production Causes? Adenoma Parathyroid hyperplasia PTH high Ca++ high Phos low Low Ca++ → PTH production Causes? CKD PTH high Ca++ low Phos high PTH production despite normalized of Ca++ levels Causes? CKD s/p transplant PTH high Ca++ high Phos low Tx? Parathyroidectomy (remove 3.5 glands) Cinacalcet (CSR modulator) Hypercalcemia Presentation? bones, stones, groans, psychic overtones Tx? 1st step: Normal Saline Hypercalcemia of malignancy → bisphosphonates EKG finding? Shortened QT Periumbilical pain that migrates to the right lower quadrant. → appendicitis PE findings? McBurney’s point tenderness Psoas sign (flex hip pain) Obturator sign (pain with internal rotation of hip) Rovsing’s sign (palpation of LLQ → pain in RLQ) Dx? CT scan Pregnant → US Kid → US Tx? Surgery Classic drug and viral causes of aplastic anemia. Drugs? Carbamazepine Chloramphenicol Viral? Parvovirus B19 (single stranded DNA virus) Fanconi anemia Pathophys? Problems with DNA repair Fanconi anemia vs Fanconi syndrome Fanconi anemia → cytopenias + thumb anomalies + short stature + cafe-au-lait spots Fanconi syndrome → type 2 RTA (proximal) CD4 count of 94 + MRI revealing ring enhancing lesions in the cortex → toxoplasmosis Tx? Pyrimethamine-sulfadiazine Rescue agent for pt who becomes leukopenic with treatment? leucovorin Who should get steroids? Increased ICP For PCP pneumonia: O2 sat < 92 PaO2 < 70 A-a gradient > 35 Ppx? TMP-SMX for CD4 < 100 Congenital toxo Hydrocephalus Chorioretinitis Intracranial calcifications Classic methods of transmission? handling cat litter Lupus nephritis Associated autoantibody? anti-dsDNA Classic “immunologic” description? “Full house” pattern Tx? Steroids + cyclophosphamide Osteoporosis Screening population? women > 65 Screening modality? DEXA scan Dx? T-score < -2.5 Risk Factor? Postmenopauseal Low BMI Smoking Alcohol Preventive strategies? Weight bearing exercise Smoking cessation Reduce alcohol consumption Tx? 1st line: bisphosphonates + Ca/Vit D supplementation Raloxifene (SERM) Agonist in bone Blocker Antagonist in breast Classic locations of osteoporotic fractures Vertebral compression fracture Hip fracture Name the PNA Red currant jelly sputum. → Klebsiella Rust colored sputum. → Strep pneumo PNA in an alcoholic. → Klebsiella Post viral PNA with a cavitary CXR lesion. → Staph aureus PNA in a patient that has chronically been on a ventilator. → Pseudomonas MC cause of Community Acquired Pneumonia. → Strep pneumo Pharmacological management of MRSA. Vancomycin Clindamycin Linezolid Ceftaroline (5th gen cephalosporin) Tigecycline, tertracycline Pharmacological management of Pseudomonas. Ceftazidime (only 3rd gen cephalosporin) Cefepime (4th gen cephalosporin) Pip-tazo Fluoroquinolones Carbapenems Aztreonam Aminoglycosides JVD and exercise intolerance in a patient with a recent history of an URI. → dilated cardiomyopathy 2/2 viral myocarditis MC cause? Coxsackie B VS Coxsackie A: Hand foot mouth dx Drug causes myocarditis Clozapine Anthracyclines Prevention? Dexrazoxane (iron chelator) Trastuzumab reversible tx for breast cancer Classic cause in a patient with recent history of travel to S. America? Chagas T. Cruzi Potential sequelae? Achalasia Dilated cardiomyopathy Megacolon (2/2 degeneration of myenteric plexus) Massive skin sloughing (45% BSA) in a patient that was recently started on a gout medication? TEN Dx? <10% BSA → SJS >30% BSA → TEN Tx? STOP the drug IVF Topical abx to prevention infection Tetany and a prolonged QT interval in a patient with recent surgical treatment of follicular thyroid carcinoma. → hypocalcemia due to removal of parathyroids Recurrent viral infections + QT prolongation + tetany → DiGeorge syndrome Pathophys? Failure of development of 3rd/4th pharyngeal pouches Trousseau and Chvostek signs. Trousseau → inflation of BP cuff causes carpopedal spasm Chvostek → taping on cheek causes facial muscle spasm Hypocalcemia that is refractory to repletion → consider hypomagnesemia Electrolyte/drug causes of prolonged QT intervals Electrolytes? Hypocalcemia Hypomagnesemia Hypokalemia Drugs? Macrolides FloroQunlones Haloperidol Ondensatron Methadone Hypoalbuminemia and Ca balance Hypoalbumenia → decrease in total body Ca++, no change in ionized Ca++ Drop of 1 in albumin → add 0.8 to Ca++ Abdominal pain radiating to the back → acute pancreatitis Causes? #1 = Gallstones #2 = Alcohol Hypertriglyceridemia Hypercalcemia Scorpion sting Handlebar injuries Lab markers? Lipase - most sensitive Amylase Physical exam signs in pancreatitis. Cullen’s sign = periumbilical ecchymosis Grey Turner sign = flank ecchymosis Tx? NPO + IVF + pain control Meperidine is a good agent because it doesn’t cause sphincter of Oddi spasms Management of gallstone pancreatitis Dx? US then ERCP Tx? DELAYED cholecystectomy What if the patient becomes severely hypoxic with a CXR revealing a “white out” lung? ARDS noncardiogenic pulm edema PCWP? <18 mmHg NORMAL 20 yo M with red urine in the morning + hepatic vein thrombosis + CBC findings of hemolytic anemia. → paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria Pathophys? Defect in GPI anchors, which attach CD55 and CD59 to cell (they prevent complement from destroying RBC) Sleep → hypoventilation → mild respiratory acidosis → activation of complement cascade Gene mutation? PIGA Dx? Flow cytometry Tx? Eculizumab (terminal complement inhibitor) Vaccine required? pnemococal Neisseria meningitidis Chronic diarrhea and malabsorption in a HIV+ patient + detection of acid fast oocysts in stool. → cryptosporidium parvum Acid-fast organisms Cryptosporidium TB MAC Nocardia Dx? Stool O&P Tx? Nitazoxanide Route of transmission? Contaminated water Muddy brown casts on urinalysis in a patient with recent CT contrast administration (or Gentamicin administration for a life threatening gram -ve infection) → Acute Tubular Necrosis Woman with morning joint stiffness > 1 hr → Rhematoid Arthritis. Antibodies? Rheum Factor (IgM against IgG) anti-CCP - more specific HLA? DR4 Pathophys? IgM constant region activates complement → inflammation → formation of pannus (hypertrophied synovium) → damage to cartilage and bone Caplan syndrome = RA + pneumoconiosis Felty syndrome = RA + neutropenia + splenomegaly (“RANS”) Classic hand/finger findings/distribution? MCP & PIP joints of hands (DIP joints spared) Imaging findings? Symmetric joint space narrowing Tx? Methotrexate (DMARDs) If no response → TNF alpha inhibitor (e.g. infliximab) Required testing prior to starting methotrexate? PFTs Required testing prior to starting infliximab? TB Hep B/Hep C Differentiating Strep pharyngitis from Infectious Mononucleosis LND distribution Anterior cervical → Strep Posterior cervical → Mono Disease onset Acute → Strep Over weeks → Mono Organ involvement Splenomegaly → Mono Pt with sore throat takes amoxicillin and gets rash → mono NOT allergic rxn! CENTOR criteria C = absence of Cough E = tonsillar Exudates N = nodes/anterior cervical lymphadenopathy T = temp (fever) OR <15 → +1 >=45 → -1 Using CENTOR score 0/1 → don’t test, don’t treat 2/3 → rapid antigen test Positive → treat Negative → throat culture 4/5 → treat empirically Tx of Strep pharyngitis? Amoxillcin If PCN allergic → azithromycin Potential sequelae of Strep pharyngitis RF - preventable with abx PSGN Endocarditis MC cause of endocarditis? IVDU Bug? Staph aureus Valve? tricuspid Prosthetic valve endocarditis Bug? Staph epidermidis Endocarditis after dental procedure? Viridans group streptococci Strep viridans, Strep mitis, Strep mutans, Strep sanguineous Patient with malar rash and echo showing vegetations on both sides of the mitral valve → Libman-Sacks endocarditis Presentation? Fever + night sweats + new murmur Splinter hemorrhages Roth spots (retinal hemorrhages) Painless Janeway lesions + painful Osler nodes (immune phenomenon) Dx? 1st step: blood cultures TEE Tx? Abx that include Staph aureus coverage (e.g. vancomycin) for WEEKS Bugs implicated in culture negative endocarditis HACEK H = haemophilus A = actinobacillus C = cardiobacterium E = eikenella K = kingella Coxiella burnetii Blood cultures in a patient with endocarditis reveal S. Bovis (or S. Gallolyticus bacteremia). NBS? Colonoscopy Who needs antibiotic prophylaxis? Hx endocarditis Prosthetic valve Unrepaired cyanotic congenital dz Heart transplant with valve dysfunction Erythematous salmon colored patch with silvery scale on the elbows and knees. → psoriasis Tx? Topical steroids If this patient presents with joint pain (especially in the fingers)? Psoriatic arthritis Imaging? Pencil-and-cup deformity Tx? NSAIDs T of 104 + tachycardia + new onset Afib in a patient with a history of Graves disease. → thyroid storm Lab findings? TSH low T3/T4 high Tx? 1st step: propranolol 2nd step: PTU Then: Prednisone Potassium iodide (Lugul’s solution) Wolff-Chaikoff effect → large amounts of iodine inhibit thyroid hormone synthesis Biopsy revealing tennis racket shaped structures in cells of immune origin. → Langerhans cell histiocytosis Electron microscopy? Birbeck granules (tennis rackets) Marker? S100 Small bowel obstruction in a HIV patient with purple macules on the face, arms, and lower extremities. → Kaposi’s sarcoma Bug? HHV8 Tx? HAART Pathophys of vascular lesions? Overexpression of VEGF Fever + rash + eosinophiluria 10 days after a patient started an antistaphylococcal penicillin. → acute interstitial nephritis Tx? STOP drug + steroids SLE SOAP BRAIN MD S = serositis O = oral ulcers A = arthritis P = photosensitivity B = blood disorders (cytopenias) R = renal A = ANA/anti-dsDNA I = immunologic N = neurologic findings M = malar rash D = discoid rash Type 2 vs 3 HSRs in lupus Type 2 → cytopenias Type 3 → all other manifestations Lupus Ab? ANA anti-dsDNA anti-Smith Lupus nephritis → full house pattern on IF Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome → recurrent pregnancy losses Pathophys? Thrombosis of the uteroplacental arteries. MC cause of death in lupus patients? What I’ve read recently: CV disease Per Divine: Treated → infection Untreated → renal dz Also 40x risk MI Endocarditis in lupus pt? Libman-Sacks endocarditis Neonatal 3rd degree heart block → neonatal lupus Maternal autoimmune dz? Sjogren’s SLE Ab? anti-SSA/anti-Ro anti-SSB/anti-La Tx? Steroids Cyclophosphamide Hydroxychloroquine → good for skin lesions Pulmonary abscesses Bugs? Staph Anaerobes Klebsiella RF? Alcoholism Elderly Post-viral pneumonia MC location of aspiration pneumonia? Superior segment of RLL Chest pain worsened by deep inspiration and relieved by sitting up in a patient with a recent MI or elevated creatinine or URI or RA/SLE. → pericarditis EKG findings? Diffuse ST elevations + PR depression PE finding? Friction rub (“scratchy sound on auscultation”) A few days after MI → fibrinous pericarditis Weeks after MI → Dressler’s Tx? NSAIDS Consider adding on colchicine Cardiac tamponade Beck’s triad = hypotension + JVD + muffled heart sounds EKG findings? Electrical alternans Type of shock? Obstructive cardiogenic (Amboss) CO low SVR high PCWP high Tx? Pericardiocentesis or pericardial Pearly lesion with telangiectasias on the ear in a farmer. → Basal Cell Carcinoma MC type skin cancer Location? Upper lip Dx? Biopsy Tx? Mohs surgery Cold intolerance in a 35 yo white F → hypothyroidism MC cause? Hashimoto’s Histology? lymphoid follicles w/ active germinal centers Lab findings? TSH high T3/T4 low Ab? anti-TPO Anti-thyroglobulin HLA? DR3/DR5 Tx? Levothyroxine Future complication? thyroid lymphoma Massive hematemesis in a patient with a history of chronic liver disease. → ruptured varices Pathophys? L gastric vein has anastomosis with azygos veins. Increased portal pressure → backward flow from L gastric veins to azygous vein (which empties into SVC). Acute tx? IVF + octreotide + ceftriaxone/cipro + EGD w/ ligation/banding Do NOT give a beta blocker for acute tx Prophalaxsis? Beta blocker + spironolactone Other manifestations of elevated portal pressures Caput medusa Internal hemorrhoids Tx for cirrhotic coagulopathies? FFP If uremia → give desmopressin Note: Desmopressin = ADH analog → so, it can cause AE of hyponatremia 2/2 SIADH Hemophilia A Pathophys? deficiency of factor 8 Inheritance? XLR Coag labs? Bleeding time normal PTT HIGH b/c clotting problem PT normal Hemophilia B Pathophys? deficiency of factor 9 Inheritance? XLR Coag labs? Bleeding time normal PTT HIGH PT normal Hemophilia C Pathophys? deficiency of factor 11 Inheritance? AR Coag labs? Bleeding time normal PTT HIGH PT normal Bernard Soulier Syndrome Pathophys? Deficiency of GpIb Coag labs? Bleeding time HIGH PTT normal PT normal Glanzmann Thrombasthenia Pathophys? Deficiency of GpIIbIIIa Coag labs? Bleeding time HIGH PTT normal PT normal Von Willebrand’s disease Pathophys? Deficiency of vWF Inheritance? AD Coag labs? Bleeding time HIGH PTT HIGH vWF is a protecting group for factor 8 PT normal ITP Pathophys? Ab against GpIIbIIIa Classic pt? Pt with SLE Tx? Observation Steroids IVIG Splenectomy TTP Pathophys? Deficiency in ADAMTS13 enzyme → cannot cleave vWF multimers → activation of platelets → thrombosis → thrombocytopenia Presentation? microangiopathic hemolytic anemia + thrombocytopenia + renal failure + fever + neurologic problems Tx? Plasma exchange transfusion****** HUS Bugs? Shigella or E. coli O157:H7 Presentation? Fever+ microangiopathic hemolytic anemia + thrombocytopenia + renal failure + neurologic Platelet deficiency vs coagulation factor bleeds Platelet deficiency → mucosal bleeds, petechiae, heavy menses Coag factor deficiency bleeds → hemarthrosis Why do patients with CKD develop coagulopathy? Uremia → platelet dysfunction Tx? Desmopressin Note: Desmopressin = ADH analog → so, it can cause AE of hyponatremia 2/2 SIADH Exercising caution with transfusion in patients with Bernard Soulier syndrome Do NOT give transfusion that includes platelets They can have an anaphylactic rxn to GpIb (since they don’t have GpIb) Oropharyngeal candidiasis. RF? HIV Chronic ICS use TNF inhibitor Micro finding? Germ tubes at 37 C Tx oral candidiasis? Nystatin swish-and-swallow Tx invasive candidiasis? Amphotericin B Prevention of Amphotericin B toxicity? Liposomal formulation Pleural effusions Light’s criteria (must meet all 3 to be considered transudative!) LDH < 2/3 ULN LOW Pleural LDH/serum LDH < 0.6 LOW Pleural protein/serum protein < 0.5 LOW Causes of transudative effusion CHF Cirrhosis Nephrotic syndrome Note: Per UW 2021: Mechanism of transudate effusion? Decreased pulmonary artery oncotic pressure, e.g. hypoalbuminemia in nephrotic syndrome Increased pulmonary capillary hydrostatic pressure, e.g. volume overload in heart failure Causes of exudative effusion Malignancy Cancer Parapneumonic effusion Tb Note: Per UW 2021: Mechanism of exudate effusion? Inflammatory increased in vascular permeability of membrane (increased flow of interstitial edema into pleural space) Unique cause of both transudative & exudative effusions? PE Classic Pleural Effusion findings? Decreased breath sounds Dullness to percussion Decreased tactile fremitus Tx? Chest tube Chylothorax = lymph in the pleural space Pathophys? Obstruction of thoracic duct or injury to the thoracic duct Pleural fluid findings? High Triglycerides Holosystolic murmur heard best at the apex with radiation to the axilla in a patient with a recent MI. → mitral regurg 2/2 papillary muscle rupture Dx? Echo Why widely split S2? Aortic valve is closing earlier (LV is emptying into both aorta & LA) Maneuvers that increase intensity Increase preload (putting more blood in that can be regurgitated) Increase afterload Decubitus ulcers RF? Elderly Paraplegic Fecal/urinary incontinence Poor nutrition Staging Stage 1 = non-blanchable erythema Tx? Repositioning q2hrs Stage 2 = loss of epidermis + partial loss of dermis Tx? Occlusive dressing superficial Stage 3 = involves entire dermis, extending to subQ fat Does NOT extend past fascia Tx? Surgical debridement Stage 4 = muscle/tendon/bose exposed Tx? Surgical debridement General tx strategies? Repositioning + good nutritional support Marjolin’s ulcer = non-healing wound that is actually squamous cell carcinoma T1DM Pathophys? Autoimmune destruction of pancreas Ab? anti-GAD 65 (glutamic acid decarboxylase) anti-IA2 (islet tyrosine phosphatase 2) Islet cell autoantibodies Insulin autoantibodies Dx? A1c > 6.5% (twice) Fasting BG >= 126 (twice) Oral glucose tolerance test >= 200 (twice) Sxs of DM + random glucose > 200 Tx? Long-acting insulin + mealtime insulin Long-acting Glargine Detemir Rapid-acting Lispro Aspart Glulisine 3 HY complications Nephropathy Retinopathy & cataracts Neuropathy Chronic DM care A1c q3 months Foot exam annually Eye exam annually Microalbumin:Cr ratio annually Nephroprotection in DM? ACE-I GI bleed algorithm 1st step: ABCs + 2 large-bore IVs + IVFs 2nd step: NG lavage Clear fluid → go deeper Blood → UGIB → upper endoscopy Bilious fluid → have ruled out UGIB → proceed to colonoscopy See source → intervene as needed See nothing → CT angiography for large bleed Tagged RBC scan for smaller bleed Antiplatelet Pharmacology Aspirin Mechanism? Irreversibly inhibits COX-1 and COX-2 Clopidogrel/ticlopidine = P2Y12 (ADP receptor) blockers Mechanism? Inhibit platelet activation Abciximab/eptifibatide/tirofiban = GpIIbIIIa receptor blockers Mechanism? Inhibit platelet aggregation Ristocetin cofactor assay Issues with adhesion step → abnormal result Abnormal ristocetin cofactor assays: Von Willebrand disease Bernard Soulier disease Normal ristocetin cofactor assay: Glanzmann Thrombasthenia Von Willebrand disease effects on PTT? Increased Pathophys? vWF is a protecting group for Factor 8. Treatment of VWD? Desmopressin Mechanism? Increases release of vWF from Weibel-Palade bodies of endothelial cells Note: Desmopressin = ADH analog → so, it can cause AE of hyponatremia 2/2 SIADH HSV1 vs HSV2. Oral herpes → HSV1 Genital herpes → HSV2 Dx? PCR (most up-to-date) Tzanck smear (outdated, not very sensitive, nonspecific) → intranuclear inclusions Brain area affected by HSV encephalitis? Temporal lobes CSF findings in HSV encephalitis? RBCs******* Tx herpes encephalitis? Acyclovir AE? Crystal nephropathy Can’t see, can’t pee, can’t climb a tree. → reactive arthritis HLA? B27 Classic bug? Chlamydia Tx? steroids Need abx? Only if ongoing infection Can’t see, can’t pee, can’t hear a bee → Alport syndrome Inheritance? X-linked dominant Tx of NG & CT NG → treat empirically for both → ceftriaxone + azithro/doxy CT → azithro/doxy Hypovolemic Septic Neurogenic Cardiogenic CO low PCWP low SVR high*** CO high PCWP normal SVR low Tx? norepi CO low SVR low CO low PCWP high*** SVR high*** Tx anaphylactic shock? epinephrine Melanomas ABCDE A = asymmetry B = irregular borders C = color variation D = diameter > 6 mm E = evolving Dx? Full-thickness biopsy Excisional for small lesions Punch for larger lesions Most important prognostic factor → Breslow depth DM pharmacology Lactic acidosis → metformin Decreases hepatic gluconeogenesis → metformin Hold before CT w/ contrast → metformin Weight gain → sulfonylureas & TZDs (-glitizones) Diarrhea → acarbose & migliton Inhibits disaccharidases (can’t reabsorb disaccharides) Recurrent UTIs → SGLT-2 inhibitors Weight loss → GLP-1 agonists (e.g. liraglutide, exenatide) & DPP4 inhibitors (-gliptins) Contraindicated in pt with HF → TZDs PPAR-gamma receptor found in kidney → water retention Contraindication in pt with MTC → GLP-1 agonists Biggest risk of hypoglycemia? Sulfonylureas RF esophageal adenocarcinoma Barrett’s esophagus RF esophageal squamous cell carcinoma Smoking Drinking Achalasia Location esophageal adenocarcinoma? Lower 1/3 Location esophageal squamous cell carcinoma? Upper 2/3 MC US? Adenocarcinoma MC worldwide? Squamous cell carcinoma Presentation? Dysphagia to solids → dysphagia to liquids Dx? EGD Staging? CT scan or esophageal US Factor V Leiden Pathophys? Resistance to protein C Dx? Activated Protein C resistance assay Patient needs super large doses of heparin to record any changes in PTT → AT-III deficiency Recall that heparin is a AT-III activator 35 yo with a hypercoagulable disorder that does not correct with mixing studies. → antiphospholipid antibody disorder Anaphylaxis in a patient with a long history of Hemophilia A → Ab against factor 8 that cause type 1 HSR with transfusion Hx of hemophilia, diagnosed 5 years ago. Before you would give them factor 8 concentrate and PTT would normalize. Now they’re requirizing larger doses of factor 8 to normalize PTT. → inhibitor formation (antibodies against clotting factors) Skin necrosis with Warfarin → protein C/S deficiency Prothrombin G20210 mutation → overproduction of factor II Rash in dermatomal distribution → VZV infection Contraindications to VZV vaccination? Pregnant woman Kid < 1 year Severe immunosuppression (e.g. HIV with CD4 < 200) Tx? Acyclovir If resistant, foscarnet Tzanck smear findings? Intranuclear inclusions Shingles vaccination guidelines? Adults over 60 #1 cause of ESRD in the US → DM nephropathy Histology? Kimmelsteil-Wilson nodules #2 cause of ESRD in the US → hypertensive nephropathy Pt with BP 240/150. How fast should you lower BP? 25% in first 24 hrs Drugs for hypertensive emergencies? Nicardipine Clevidipine Nitroprusside AE? Cyanide poisoning Tx? Amyl nitrate + thiosulfate OR hydroxocobalamin Labelol Renal protective medications in patients with DKD or hypertensive nephropathy? ACE-I Anemia + Cranial Nerve deficits + Thick bones + Carbonic Anhydrase 2 deficiency + Increased TRAP + Increased Alkaline Phosphatase. → osteopetrosis Pathophys? Carbonic anhydrase is defective → osteoclasts cannot produce acid to resorb bone Tx? IFN-gamma Osteoclasts are a specialized macrophage IFN-gamma is an activator of macrophages Clinical diagnostic criteria for Chronic Bronchitis Diagnostic criteria? 2 years 3 months/year of chronic cough PFT findings FEV1 low FEV1/FVC ratio low RV high TLC high Which PFT market can differentiate CB from emphysema? DLCO DLCO normal → CB DLCO low → emphysema ****** Tx acute exacerbation? Abx + bronchodilators + corticosteroids (“ABCs”) Prevention? Stop smoking! Afib #1 RF? Mitral stenosis #1 RF MS? Rheumatic fever #1 RF CAD and AAA: smoking #1 RF stroke and aortic dissection: HTN MC arrhythmia in hyperthyroidism → Afib MC site of ectopic foci in Afib → pulmonary veins EKG findings? “Irregularly irregular” + no P waves Location of emboli formation? LA appendage Who should be cardioverted back to sinus rhythm? New onset (<48 hrs) Afib Anticoagulated for 3 weeks + TEE negative for clot Afib that’s refractory to medical therapy Afib & HDUS Q on T phenomenon? Depolarization during T wave (repolarization) can cause QT prolongation → Torsades → death Prevention? SYNCHRONIZED cardioversion Tx? Rate control Beta blockers ND-CCB (e.g. verapamil, diltiazem) Rhythmic control Amiodarone Reducing stroke risk in Afib? Anticoagulation for CHA2DS2VASc score >= 2 Anticoagulation options Valvular cause (e.g. MS) → warfarin Any other cause → warfarin or NOAC (apixiban) Reversal of AC Warfarin → Vit K, four-factor PCC Heparin → protamine sulfate Dabigatran → idarucizumab Crusty, scaly, ulcerating lesion with heaped up borders → squamous cell carcinoma Classic location? Below Lower lip Precursor lesion? Actinic keratosis What if it arises in a scar or chronic wound? Marjolin ulcer Hypothermia + hypercapnia + non pitting edema + hyponatremia + HR of 35 + hypotension in a patient with a history of papillary thyroid cancer → myxedema coma Tx? Levothyroxine + steroids Lab findings? TSH high T3/T4 low LDL high Acute onset “dermatologic” breakout in a patient with a recent history of weight loss and epigastric pain. → Leser–Trélat sign associated with visceral malignancy pancreatic cancer Lymph node associations Supraclavicular → Virchow’s node Periumbilical → Sister Mary Joseph What are mets to the ovaries called? Kruckenberg tumor Classic bug associated with gastric cancer? H. pylori (MALToma) Classic histological finding in the diffuse type of gastric cancer? Signet ring cells RBCs without central pallor + elevated MCHC + anemia. → hereditary spherocytosis Inheritance? AD Pathophys? Deficiency of spectrin, ankyrin, or band 3.2 Intravascular or extravascular hemolysis? Extravascular (RBCs bound by IgG, attacked by splenic macrophages) Dx? Osmotic fragility test Eosin-5-maleimide Acidified glycerol lysis test Tx? Splenectomy Post-splenectomy preventative care? Strep pneumo Hinflue vaccine Neisseria Septic shock Hemodynamic parameters CO high SVR low PCWP normal MvO2 high Tx? IVF + norepi + broad-spectrum abx (cover MRSA + Pseudomonas) E.g. vanc + pip-tazo E.g

12 - Enterobakterije, E. coli, Klebsiella, Proteus

E. coli: Disease

E. coli: Identification and susceptibility

Digestion Notes (Biology 12) I. Introduction/Overview • Digestion: Breakdown of food into small, soluble molecules • Occurs physically and chemically • Absorption: The process of taking specific compounds into the body • Elimination: Expulsion of materials not absorbed into the body • Excretion: Removal of waste from metabolic processes II. Location of Parts and Function A. Teeth • Type of teeth depends on diet: • Carnivores: Sharp teeth for grasping prey and severing meat • Herbivores: Flat teeth for crushing plant fibers • Omnivores: A combination of tooth types for eating both meat and plants • Structure: • Enamel: Hard outer layer • Dentin: Bony layer under enamel • Pulp: Living part of the tooth (contains nerves and blood vessels) • Teeth are embedded in sockets in the jaw B. Tongue • Functions: • Taste: Detects salt, sour, sweet, and bitter flavors • Positioning food for chewing C. Salivary Glands • Three pairs: • Parotid (side of face; swells with mumps) • Sublingual (under tongue) • Submandibular (lower jaw) • Produce saliva, which contains enzymes for digestion D. Palates • Located at the top of the mouth • Hard palate: Front, separates the mouth from the nasal cavity • Soft palate: Back, ends in the uvula E. Pharynx • Area between mouth and esophagus • Used for both breathing and eating • Epiglottis: Closes over the glottis when swallowing to prevent choking F. Esophagus • Muscular tube that pushes food into the stomach using peristalsis • Composed of five tissue layers: 1. Mucosa (epithelial lining) 2. Submucosa (connective tissue) 3. Muscularis (two muscle layers: circular and longitudinal) 4. Serosa (outer epithelial layer; secretes fluid for lubrication) G. Cardiac Sphincter • Muscle at the junction of the esophagus and stomach • Opens to allow food into the stomach H. Stomach • J-shaped organ, located left of the body’s center • Capacity: About 1 liter • Inner lining contains gastric glands: • Parietal cells → Produce HCl • Chief cells → Produce pepsinogen, activated by HCl into pepsin • Epithelial cells → Produce mucus (protects stomach lining) • Functions: • Storage of food (empties in 2-6 hours) • Digestion using pepsin and salivary amylase • Absorption of water, ethanol • Regulation of pepsin production by the hormone gastrin I. Pyloric Sphincter • Muscle at the junction of the stomach and small intestine • Opens to allow chyme (partially digested food) into the small intestine J. Small Intestine • Length: ~ 3 meters (10 feet) • Highly convoluted to increase surface area for absorption • Interior folds covered with villi (tiny projections that increase surface area) • Divided into three parts: 1. Duodenum (first 25 cm): Produces lactase, peptidase, maltase, nuclease 2. Jejunum 3. Ileum • Functions: • Completes digestion • Absorbs nutrients into the bloodstream K. Liver • Largest organ in the body • Monitors blood composition via the hepatic portal vein L. Pancreas • Produces pancreatic juice (digestive enzymes and sodium bicarbonate to neutralize stomach acid) • Produces insulin (regulates blood glucose) M. Ileo-Caecal Opening • Joins the small intestine to the large intestine N. Caecum • Blind pouch at the end of the small intestine • No function in humans (vestigial), but in herbivores, it helps digest cellulose O. Large Intestine • Parts: 1. Ascending colon 2. Transverse colon 3. Descending colon 4. Rectum (stores feces) 5. Anus (controls feces release) • Functions: • Reabsorbs water (~95% of 10L daily intake) • Forms feces • Produces vitamins B and K using E. coli bacteria III. Digestive Enzymes Enzyme Source pH Digested Food Product Salivary Amylase Salivary Glands 7 Starch Maltose Pepsin Stomach 2 Protein Peptides Pancreatic Amylase Pancreas Basic Starch Maltose Trypsin Pancreas Basic Protein Peptides Lipase Pancreas Basic Fat Glycerol & Fatty Acids Peptidases Small Intestine Basic Peptides Amino Acids Maltase Small Intestine Basic Maltose Glucose Nuclease Pancreas Basic DNA/RNA Nucleotides IV. Swallowing and Peristalsis • Swallowing: Food forms a bolus (food ball) and is moved down the esophagus • Peristalsis: Rhythmic contractions of smooth muscle that push food through the digestive tract V. The 7 Functions of the Liver 1. Detoxifies harmful substances (e.g., alcohol) 2. Stores glucose as glycogen 3. Destroys old red blood cells (recycling heme into bile) 4. Produces urea from amino acid breakdown 5. Makes blood proteins 6. Stores iron and vitamins A, D, E, K 7. Converts amino acids to glucose if needed (gluconeogenesis) VI. Digestive Juices & Hormones Gastric Juice (Stomach) • Contains HCl, pepsinogen (activated into pepsin), and mucus • Helps digest proteins into peptides Pancreatic Juice • Contains sodium bicarbonate (neutralizes acid) • Enzymes: Pancreatic amylase, trypsin, lipase, nuclease Bile (Liver & Gallbladder) • Breaks down fats into small droplets for lipase to act on VII. Control of Digestive Gland Secretions • Nervous Reflex: Presence of food triggers digestion • Conditioned Reflex: External stimuli (e.g

E. Coli

Lecture 13 - E. coli