Cardio/Renal 13 - Rheumatic Fever, Bacterial Endocarditis, Premedical Prophylaxis (Dr. Shaikhi)

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116 Terms

1
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what strep species are a part of our normal flora?

α-hemolytic Streptococcus

Streptococcus Viridans

<p>α-hemolytic Streptococcus</p><p>Streptococcus Viridans</p>
2
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what is the invading bacteria species that Causes Strep. Throat/pharyngitis?

Streptococcus pyogenes/ Group A β-hemolytic streptococcus

<p>Streptococcus pyogenes/ Group A β-hemolytic streptococcus</p>
3
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Incubation period of group A strep pharyngitis is approximately :

2 to 5 days

<p>2 to 5 days</p>
4
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Pt presents with sudden onset of sore throat, fever, myalgia dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), odynophagia (painful swallowing), swollen and painful anterior cervical lymph nodes and tonsillar exudate

Streptococcal Pharyngitis (Strep Throat)

<p>Streptococcal Pharyngitis (Strep Throat)</p>
5
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t/f: coughing is a symptom of a Streptococcal pharyngeal/throat infection

false, more common with viral pharyngitis

<p>false, more common with viral pharyngitis</p>
6
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couching, watery eyes and runny noes is associated with:

viral pharyngitis (!!!!!!)

<p>viral pharyngitis (!!!!!!)</p>
7
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b-hemolytic strep. Infection can also cause:

scarlet fever (with typical scalatiniform rash)

<p>scarlet fever (with typical scalatiniform rash)</p>
8
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Diagnosis of streptococcal pharyngitis is confirmed with a:

Rapid Antigen Detection Test (RADT)

<p>Rapid Antigen Detection Test (RADT)</p>
9
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the GOLD STANDARD for diagnosing streptococcal pharyngitis is ____________

throat culture test

<p>throat culture test</p>
10
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What is the recommended Rx for Group A Strep. Pharyngitis?

patient stays home until afebrile & until 24hrs after starting antibiotic therapy

(This is the Primary Prevention therapy for ARF)

<p>patient stays home until afebrile &amp; until 24hrs after starting antibiotic therapy </p><p>(This is the Primary Prevention therapy for ARF)</p>
11
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Peritonsillar abscess, retropharyngeal abscess, cervical lymphadenitis and mastoiditis are all __________ complications of group A strep infections

suppurative

<p>suppurative</p>
12
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Acute rheumatic fever/ARF and Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis are __________ complications of group A strep infections

non-suppurative

<p>non-suppurative</p>
13
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Complications of group A strep pharyngitis occur ______ original infection resolves

after

<p>after</p>
14
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_________ is a non-suppurative acute inflammatory response to a PAST untreated or partially treated Group A, b hemolytic streptococcal infection

Acute Rheumatic Fever (ARF)

<p>Acute Rheumatic Fever (ARF)</p>
15
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Acute Rheumatic Fever occurs ______ after an untreated / partially treated b-hemolytic streptococcalinfection

3-4 weeks

<p>3-4 weeks</p>
16
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Strep. infections are more common in what patient populations?

low income, high density populations

<p>low income, high density populations</p>
17
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age most affected by Acute Rheumatic Fever (ARF):

5-15 years

<p>5-15 years</p>
18
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Acute Rheumatic Fever (ARF) is uncommon for ages ____ and below

3 years

<p>3 years</p>
19
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ARF is an antigen-antibody reaction that affects

peri-arteriolar connective tissue

<p>peri-arteriolar connective tissue</p>
20
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Fever is considered _______ criteria for diagnosing Acute Rheumatic Fever (ARF)

minor

<p>minor</p>
21
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Pain in the Right Upper Abdominal Quadrant (RUQ) is considered _______ criteria for diagnosing Acute Rheumatic Fever (ARF)

minor

<p>minor</p>
22
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Elevated Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) is considered _______ criteria for diagnosing Acute Rheumatic Fever (ARF)

minor

<p>minor</p>
23
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Increased C-reactive protein (CRP) is considered _______ criteria for diagnosing Acute Rheumatic Fever (ARF)

minor

<p>minor</p>
24
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Antibody titer Tests is considered _______ criteria for diagnosing Acute Rheumatic Fever (ARF)

minor

<p>minor</p>
25
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EKG & Doppler echocardiography as tools to diagnose cardiac involvement is considered _______ criteria for diagnosing Acute Rheumatic Fever (ARF)

minor

<p>minor</p>
26
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Erythema marginatum is considered _______ criteria for diagnosing Acute Rheumatic Fever (ARF)

major

<p>major</p>
27
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Carditis is considered _______ criteria for diagnosing Acute Rheumatic Fever (ARF)

major

<p>major</p>
28
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Skin nodules is considered _______ criteria for diagnosing Acute Rheumatic Fever (ARF)

major

<p>major</p>
29
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Sydenham chorea is considered _______ criteria for diagnosing Acute Rheumatic Fever (ARF)

major

<p>major</p>
30
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Migratory polyarthritis is considered _______ criteria for diagnosing Acute Rheumatic Fever (ARF)

major

<p>major</p>
31
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Acute Rheumatic Fever (ARF) Diagnostic Criteria

The patient must have..

2 major criteria or 1 major & 2 minor

<p>2 major criteria or 1 major &amp; 2 minor</p>
32
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Rheumatic arthritis is seen most commonly in _______

children (rare in adults)

<p>children (rare in adults)</p>
33
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What presents with the following characteristics:

•Major joints are affected bilaterally

•Joints are swollen, painful & filled with aseptic fluid: An aseptic arthritis

•Resolution of joint swelling occurs in a few weeks

•Following recovery, NO residual joint deformity persists

Rheumatic arthritis

<p>Rheumatic arthritis</p>
34
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If other causes, like rheumatic arthritis are excluded, what could qualify?

Polyarthralgia

<p>Polyarthralgia</p>
35
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What layers of the heart can be affected by Rheumatic Heart Disease?

all 3 layers (endocardium, myocardium, pericardium)

<p>all 3 layers (endocardium, myocardium, pericardium)</p>
36
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what layer of the heart is MOST affected by Rheumatic heart disease?

endocardium

<p>endocardium</p>
37
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What presents with the following characteristics:

•Fibrosis of affected Valves can cause stenosis or narrowing and/or incompetence or widening

•Stenotic valves cause turbulent blood flow through the narrowed valves

rheumatic heart disease (RHD)

<p>rheumatic heart disease (RHD)</p>
38
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Both stenotic & regurgitant/incompetent valves give rise to ___________

heart murmurs

<p>heart murmurs</p>
39
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___________ is an audible turbulence of blood flow through stenotic/incompetent valves

heart murmur

<p>heart murmur</p>
40
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Turbulent blood flow also occurs with reverse flow through

regurgitant/incompetent valves

<p>regurgitant/incompetent valves</p>
41
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in children with Rheumatic heart disease, which valve is most commonly affected?

mitral valve (mitral stenosis/incompetence)

<p>mitral valve (mitral stenosis/incompetence)</p>
42
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in adults with Rheumatic heart disease, which valve is most commonly affected?

aortic valve (aortic stenosis/incompetence)

<p>aortic valve (aortic stenosis/incompetence)</p>
43
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which valve is most commonly affected by RHD

mitral valve

<p>mitral valve</p>
44
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the __________ is LEAST commonly affected by RHD

pulmonic valve

<p>pulmonic valve</p>
45
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No premed for _________heart murmurs prior to Dentistry

Non-cyanotic

<p>Non-cyanotic</p>
46
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________ is the fraction of the end-diastolic volume (the volume of blood within a ventricle just before a contraction) that is ejected with each beat: NORMAL: 50%-65%

ejection fraction

<p>ejection fraction</p>
47
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Low/high Ejection fraction (EF) can cause stagnation of blood in the heart, leading to increase thrombosis risk and heart failure

Low

<p>Low</p>
48
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Ejection fraction (Ef) is the fraction of the end-diastolic volume (the volume of blood within a ventricle just before a contraction) that is ejected with each beat. What is the normal ejection fraction percentage?

50-65%

<p>50-65%</p>
49
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Low EF can cause stagnation of blood in the heart, leading to ___________ thrombosis risk /heart failure

Increased

<p>Increased</p>
50
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In RHD, involvement of the myocardium is ___________

rare

<p>rare</p>
51
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in RHD, Pericardial involvement is common in ___________

children

<p>children</p>
52
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Does Cardiomyopathy/enlarged heart require Premedication?

no

<p>no</p>
53
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does ARF with/without Rheumatic Heart Disease require premedication?

no

<p>no</p>
54
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What presents with the following characteristics:

•Exclusively a childhood disorder of the central nervous system/CNS

•Characterized by rapid, irregular, involuntary movements of arms, legs, trunk & facial

•Movements are absent during sleep

•Females are affected more than Males

•Emotional distress worsens the movements

Sydenham's Chorea/St. Vitus' dance

<p>Sydenham's Chorea/St. Vitus' dance</p>
55
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Which of the following statements regarding Sydenham's Chorea/St. Vitus' dance is false?

A. Chorea can occasionally strike up to 6 months after the fever or infection has cleared

B. typically resolves in 2-3 months with no long-term adverse effects

C. stress management during dentistry is extremely helpful

D. It is exclusively found in adults

D. It is exclusively found in adults

<p>D. It is exclusively found in adults</p>
56
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Rx for Sydenham's Chorea/St. Vitus' dance:

- Bed rest

- Barbiturates

- Benzodiazepines

- Valproic acid

<p>- Bed rest</p><p>- Barbiturates</p><p>- Benzodiazepines</p><p>- Valproic acid</p>
57
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_____________ is a rash that is a RARE finding with the following characteristics:

- Lighter skin pts only show rash

- Presence of rash diagnostic of RF

- Doughnut shaped serpiginous spreading rash

each rash lesion has a pale center and dark margins

- Rash begins on lower trunk and migrates upwards

Erythema Marginatum

<p>Erythema Marginatum</p>
58
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Subcutaneous nodules, Erythema Nodusum, can also be found in patients with: (3)

- Tuberculosis

- Sarcoidosis

- Rheumatic fever

<p>- Tuberculosis</p><p>- Sarcoidosis</p><p>- Rheumatic fever</p>
59
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What has the following characteristics:

- Pea sized RECURRING & PAINLESS nodules

- Occur at the Elbows and Shins

Erythema Nodosum

<p>Erythema Nodosum</p>
60
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What are three strep antibody tests to detect group A beta-hemolytic strep infections?

• Anti-streptolysin O titer (ASO) Test

• Anti-deoxyribonuclease-B titer (anti-Dnase-B, or ADB) Test

• Streptozyme Test

<p>• Anti-streptolysin O titer (ASO) Test</p><p>• Anti-deoxyribonuclease-B titer (anti-Dnase-B, or ADB) Test</p><p>• Streptozyme Test</p>
61
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Throat cultures are of no value about _____-_____ weeks after initial infection

2-3

<p>2-3</p>
62
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_______ is an indicator of inflammation

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

<p>Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)</p>
63
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a marker for a recent past B-hemolytic streptococcal infection is...

increase in C-reactive protein

<p>increase in C-reactive protein</p>
64
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recurrent joint pains with no joint swelling or deformity

arthralgia

<p>arthralgia</p>
65
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Liver engorgement due to ARF associated with ________

Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)

<p>Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)</p>
66
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____________ occurs in response to the acute inflammation associated with ARF

Leukocytosis

<p>Leukocytosis</p>
67
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What are the phase treatments of rheumatic fever?

- Acute phase treatment

- Secondary prevention prophylaxis treatment

<p>- Acute phase treatment</p><p>- Secondary prevention prophylaxis treatment</p>
68
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When providing premeditation for say, a Prosthetic valve during the phase of Preventive therapy:

Select a premedication antibiotic from ANOTHER FAMILY

<p>Select a premedication antibiotic from ANOTHER FAMILY</p>
69
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Keep __ hours between the 2 antibiotics during acute rheumatic fever secondary prophylaxis therapy

6

<p>6</p>
70
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Endothelial trauma can occur with what three things?

• Valvular Regurgitation

• Valvular Stenosis

• High pressure gradients due to Atrial Septal Defect (ASD)/Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)

<p>• Valvular Regurgitation</p><p>• Valvular Stenosis</p><p>• High pressure gradients due to Atrial Septal Defect (ASD)/Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)</p>
71
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deposition of platelets and fibrin occurs at the trauma site in _______________

bacterial endocarditis

<p>bacterial endocarditis</p>
72
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In bacterial endocarditis, a __________ is formed at the endothelial trauma site, this vegetation is extremely FRIABLE

sterile ASEPTIC vegetation

<p>sterile ASEPTIC vegetation</p>
73
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The following can cause what?

- Invasive treatment causes bacteremia (introduces bacteremia)

- The aseptic vegetation can thus become SEPTIC

- Friable septic thrombus can dislodge into the circulation

Bacterial endocarditis

<p>Bacterial endocarditis</p>
74
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which type of endocarditis is more common, acute or subacute?

sub-acute endocarditis (SBE)

<p>sub-acute endocarditis (SBE)</p>
75
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acute endocarditis is caused by what type of infections?

•Staphylococcus

•Viral

•Fungal

<p>•Staphylococcus</p><p>•Viral</p><p>•Fungal</p>
76
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sub-acute endocarditis is caused by what type of infections?

a - hemolytic streptococcus

<p>a - hemolytic streptococcus</p>
77
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What type of endocarditis?

- It is common in the elderly patients & intravenous (I.V) drug users

- Symptoms & signs develop within 7 days

- is rare but more aggressive, can be fatal

acute endocarditis

<p>acute endocarditis</p>
78
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What type of endocarditis?

- Is more common and less debilitating than ABE

- Has no specific age/population prevalence unlike

- Symptoms & signs occur in 2-3 weeks and occasionally in 2-3 months

sub-acute endocarditis

<p>sub-acute endocarditis</p>
79
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The following are symptoms and signs of what?

- Acute malaise, spiking temperatures & profound hypotension are common with ABE

- Gradual or rapid onset of flu like symptoms

•Weight loss particularly with SBE

- Salmon-colored urine or hematuria

- Conduction abnormalities, new valvular regurgitation & CHF

- Splinter hemorrhage of the finger nails

- Roth’s spots which occur from retinal hemorrhages

- Osler’s nodes (painful red bumps on the finger tips) and Janeway lesions (non-tender hemorrhagic nodules on the palms and soles) are common peripheral signs associated with IE

Infective Endocarditis

<p>Infective Endocarditis</p>
80
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What is the treatment of infective endocarditis (IE)?

Patient is hospitalized ASAP to treat systemic infection & associated vital organ involvements

<p>Patient is hospitalized ASAP to treat systemic infection &amp; associated vital organ involvements</p>
81
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do patients that recover from endocarditis need to take premedication antibiotic prophylaxis?

yes

<p>yes</p>
82
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t/f: Once recovered from endocarditis, the patient must ALWAYS be given premedication antibiotic prophylaxis PRIOR to any invasive dentistry for his entire life

true

<p>true</p>
83
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AHA recommended Prophylaxis is specifically directed against ___________

alpha - Hemolytic Streptococcus

<p>alpha - Hemolytic Streptococcus</p>
84
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AHA recommended Prophylaxis is to schedule successive appointments _______ days apart if using same antibiotic for Premedication. This prevents the alpha - Hemolytic Streptococcus from becoming resistant to the antibiotic

7

<p>7</p>
85
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What are four underlying conditions for which antibiotic prophylaxis is suggested?

-Prosthetic cardiac valve or material

-Previous, relapse, or recurrent infective endocarditis (IE)

-Congenital Heart Disease (CHD)

-Cardiac transplant recipients who develop cardiac valvulopathy

<p>-Prosthetic cardiac valve or material</p><p>-Previous, relapse, or recurrent infective endocarditis (IE)</p><p>-Congenital Heart Disease (CHD)</p><p>-Cardiac transplant recipients who develop cardiac valvulopathy</p>
86
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t/f: Implantable devices such as pacemakers & stents do NOT require antibiotic prophylaxis

true

<p>true</p>
87
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What are "high-risk" states associated with joint prothesis?

- Congenital/Acquired immunocompromised states

- Chronic inflammatory joint diseases

- History of Joint Prosthesis associated draining Fistula

- Multiple Joint Prosthesis

- Past history of Joint Prosthesis infection

- Congenital bleeding disorders

- Severe Periodontitis &/or 1/> odontogenic abscesses

- Large Chronic oozing Skin sores: Psoriasis/eczema

<p>- Congenital/Acquired immunocompromised states</p><p>- Chronic inflammatory joint diseases</p><p>- History of Joint Prosthesis associated draining Fistula</p><p>- Multiple Joint Prosthesis</p><p>- Past history of Joint Prosthesis infection</p><p>- Congenital bleeding disorders</p><p>- Severe Periodontitis &amp;/or 1/&gt; odontogenic abscesses</p><p>- Large Chronic oozing Skin sores: Psoriasis/eczema</p>
88
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Antibiotic Regimens for a Dental Procedure Regimen: Single Dose _______ to _______ Minutes Before Procedure

30-60

<p>30-60</p>
89
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If a patient is taking oral medication, what are the doses for adults and children for amoxicillin?

Adults: 2g

Children: 50 mg/kg

<p>Adults: 2g</p><p>Children: 50 mg/kg</p>
90
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If a patient is unable to take oral medication, what are the doses for adults and children for ampicillin?

Adults: 2g IM or IV

Children: 50 mg/kg IM or IV

<p>Adults: 2g IM or IV</p><p>Children: 50 mg/kg IM or IV</p>
91
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If a patient is unable to take oral medication, what are the doses for adults and children for cefazolin OR cefriaxone?

Adults: 1g IM or IV

Children: 50 mg/kg IM or IV

<p>Adults: 1g IM or IV</p><p>Children: 50 mg/kg IM or IV</p>
92
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If a patient is allergic to penicillin or ampicillin and taking medication orally, what are the doses for adults and children for cephalexin?

Adults: 2g

Children: 50 mg/kg

<p>Adults: 2g</p><p>Children: 50 mg/kg</p>
93
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If a patient is allergic to penicillin or ampicillin and taking medication orally, what are the doses for adults and children for azithromycin or clarithromycin?

Adults: 500mg

Children: 15 mg/kg

<p>Adults: 500mg</p><p>Children: 15 mg/kg</p>
94
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If a patient is allergic to penicillin or ampicillin and taking medication orally, what are the doses for adults and children for doxycyline?

Adults: 100mg

Children: <45 kg, 2.2 mg/kg, >45kg, 100mg

<p>Adults: 100mg</p><p>Children: &lt;45 kg, 2.2 mg/kg, &gt;45kg, 100mg</p>
95
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If a patient is allergic to penicillin or ampicillin and unable to take medication orally, what are the doses for adults and children for cefazolin or cefriaxone?

Adults: 1g IM or IV

Children: 50 mg/kg IM or IV

<p>Adults: 1g IM or IV</p><p>Children: 50 mg/kg IM or IV</p>
96
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Is clindamycin recommended for patients who are allergic to penicillins & for antibiotics prophylaxis for a dental procedure?

no

<p>no</p>
97
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What antibiotic should not be used in an individual with a history of anaphylaxis, angioedema, or urticarial with penicillin or ampicillin?

Cephalosporins

<p>Cephalosporins</p>
98
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which types of artificial valves require endocarditis Prophylaxis prior to invasive dentistry?

both

<p>both</p>
99
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What are the 3 sources for Bio-prosthetic valves?

- Pig

- Bovine

- Human cryo-preserved heart valves (longest lifespan)

<p>- Pig</p><p>- Bovine</p><p>- Human cryo-preserved heart valves (longest lifespan)</p>
100
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Bio-prosthetic valves in general have a ______ risk for clot formation

low

<p>low</p>