eyubief PRT1

a. All of these choices.

1. Cisternal puncture is more

dangerous than the lumbar

tap procedure in obtaining

the CSF and is performed

only in cases when:

a. All of these choices.

b. The patient has a

deformity in the

vertebrae.

c. The patient has

blocked spinal canal.

d. The patient has an

infection in the tissues

of the back.

a. Clear

2. Which of the following is a

characteristic of a

transudate?

a. Clear

b. Clots readily

c. Cultures are positive

for bacteria

d. Contains pus cells

c. Renal tubular

epithelial cells

3. The most clinically

significant of the epithelial

cells in the urine are the:

a. Squamous cells

b. Red blood cells

c. Renal tubular

epithelial cells

d. Transitional cells

c. Bilirubin

5. Calcium carbonate

a. Seen in ALKALINE

urine

b. Seen in ACID urine

//a. Seen in ALKALINE

urine

4. Amniotic fluid specimens are

collected in light resistant

containers to prevent

destruction of:

a. Lecithin

b. Cells for cytogenetics

c. Bilirubin

d. Alpha fetoprotein

a. pH

6. All of the following will

decrease in an unpreserved

urine specimen, except:

a. pH

b. Glucose

c. Urine casts

d. Urobilinogen

b. Flagyl

7. A 22 year-old woman being

treated for a sexually-transmitted parasitic

infection submitted a urine

specimen to the laboratory.

After some time, her

specimen darkened in color.

The drug most likely

responsible for this change

in color is:

a. Clorets

b. Flagyl

c. Aldomet

d. Tylenol

a. Rancid butter

8. Urine odor in Tyrosinemia

a. Rancid butter

b. "Galunggong"

c. Fruity

d. Sweaty feet

e. Mousy

c. Orange

9. Urine color in Nitrofurantoin

a. Red

b. Black

c. Orange

d. Green

e. Colorless

c. Heparin

10. The proper anticoagulant to

use in the collection of

effusions for microbiologic

analysis is:

a. EDTA

b. Sodium citrate

c. Heparin

d. Sodium fluoride

b. Seen in ACID urine

11. Leucine

a. Seen in ALKALINE

urine

b. Seen in ACID urine

a. HCl

12. Which of the following urine

preservatives is used for the

detection of ammonia, urea,

total nitrogen, and VMA?

a. HCl

b. Formaldehyde

c. Boric acid

d. Thymol

c. 150 mL

13. Approximately, what is the

CSF volume in an adult?

a. 200 mL

b. 250 mL

c. 150 mL

d. 50 mL

a. 300 cells

14. Bronchoalveolar lavage is an

important diagnostic test for

P. carinii in

immunocompromised

patients. Differential counts

may also be performed in

this fluid and in this test, the

number of cells that must be

counted and classified

should be at least:

a. 300 cells

b. 100 cells

c. 50 cells

d. 200 cells

a. Red

15. Urine color in Menstrual

contamination

a. Red

b. Orange

c. Black

d. Colorless

e. Green

d. Ureter

16. Which part of the urinary

system connects the pair of

kidneys to the urinary

bladder?

a. Glomerulus

b. Proximal convoluted

tubules

c. Testes

d. Ureter

a. The semen specimen

contains urine.

17. A semen specimen is received in the laboratory

after the patient sexually abstained for three days.

Observation of the said specimen revealed that it is

yellow-colored. Analysis of this semen specimen

demonstrated normal results, except for decreased sperm motility. The most probable explanation for this abnormal

finding is:

a. The semen specimen

contains urine.

b. Prolonged sexual

abstinence.

c. The semen specimen

contains

contaminating

bacteria.

d. The semen specimen

contains alcohol.

b. Lecithin/Sphingomyeli

n ratio

18. What is the first laboratory

procedure to evaluate fetal

lung maturity?

a. Amniotic fluid

creatinine

b. Lecithin/Sphingomyeli

n ratio

c. Phosphatidylglycerol

d. Amniotic fluid bilirubin

b. Scybalous: Cystic

fibrosis

19. Which of the following is

improperly matched?

a. Ribbon-like: Spastic

colitis, ulcer, and

presence of tumors

b. Scybalous: Cystic

fibrosis

c. Rice watery stool:

Cholera

d. Pea soup stool:

Typhoid fever

b. Glomerular filtration

20. The first event in the

formation of urine is:

a. Tubular secretion

b. Glomerular filtration

c. Tubular reabsorption

d. None of these

a. Bilirubin

21. Urine Tests with the Reagent

Strip Principle of Diazo

Reaction

a. Bilirubin

b. Glucose

c. Nitrite

d. Specific gravity

e. Blood

b. Seen in ACID urine

22. Cholesterol

a. Seen in ALKALINE

urine

b. Seen in ACID urine

d. Peritoneal

23. What is the fluid aspirated

through paracentesis?

a. Pleural

b. Pericardial

c. Synovial

d. Peritoneal

a. 1, 2, and 3

24. To know the cause for the

bloody appearance of a CSF

specimen, the procedures to

perform include: 1. Observe

the distribution of blood in

the three CSF tubes. 2. Check

for the presence of clots in

the tubes. 3. Check for the

presence of xanthochromia.

4. Evaluate the leukocyte

count in all of the tubes.

a. 1, 2, and 3

b. 2 and 3

c. 1,2,3,4

d. 1 and 2

a. Specific gravity

25. Urine Tests with the Reagent

Strip Principle of Change in

pKa of a polyelectrolyte

a. Specific gravity

b. Bilirubin

c. Glucose

d. Nitrite

e. Blood

b. Respiratory distress

syndrome

26. What is the most frequent

complication of early

delivery?

a. Anencephaly

b. Respiratory distress

syndrome

c. Hemolytic disease of

the newborn

d. Spina bifida

c. "Galunggong"

27. Urine odor in

Trimethylaminuria

a. Rancid butter

b. Fruity

c. "Galunggong"

d. Mousy

e. Sweaty feet

a. Fanconi syndrome

28. All of the following causes of

glucosuria are associated

with hyperglycemia, except:

a. Fanconi syndrome

b. Severe stress

c. Pheochromocytoma

d. Acromegaly

a. Black

29. Urine color in Methyldopa

a. Black

b. Colorless

c. Green

d. Orange

e. Red

c. Glutamine

30. Which of the following CSF

constituents is elevated in

children with Reye's

syndrome?

a. Creatine kinase

b. 5-HIAA

c. Glutamine

d. Myelin basic protein

a. 5-Hydroxyindoleacetic

acid

31. The degradation product of

serotonin is called:

a. 5-Hydroxyindoleacetic

acid

b. Melanin

c. Indican

d. VMA

c. 20 uL

32. The volume of the urine

sediment placed on the

microscope slide should be

consistent for each

specimen. When using the

conventional glass-slide

method, the recommended

volume is:

a. 60 uL

b. 50 uL

c. 20 uL

d. 10 uL

d. 1,2,3

33. Male infertility can result

from: 1. Insufficient number

of sperms 2. Impaired sperm

motility 3. Abnormal sperm

forms 4. Semen pH of 7.5

a. 1,2,3,4

b. 2 and 3

c. 4 only

d. 1,2,3

b. Seen in ALKALINE

urine

34. Ammonium biurates

a. Seen in ACID urine

b. Seen in ALKALINE

urine

b. Sweaty feet

35. Urine odor in Isovaleric

academia

a. Mousy

b. Sweaty feet

c. Rancid butter

d. "Galunggong"

e. Fruity

d. Fructose test

36. Which of the tests below is

used to evaluate the function

of the seminal vesicles?

a. Neutral alpha

glucosidase test

b. MAR

c. Immunobead test

d. Fructose test

a. Hippocrates

37. The person who wrote a book

on "uroscopy" is:

a. Hippocrates

b. Thomas Addis

c. Frederik Dekkers

d. Thomas Bryant

c. Bacillus subtilis

38. In the Guthrie bacterial

inhibition test, disks

containing the patient's

blood are then placed on

culture media streaked with:

a. Staphylococcus

aureus

b. Streptococcus

agalactiae

c. Bacillus subtilis

d. Haemophilus

influenzae

b. Hippuric acid

39. Which among the urine

components below is the

eliminated form of benzoic

acid and increases with high

vegetable intake?

a. Creatinine

b. Hippuric acid

c. Urea

d. Uric acid

a. Bronchial asthma

40. Differential smear from a bronchoalveolar lavage

shows an increased number of eosinophils. Which of the

following conditions is usually associated with this

finding?

a. Bronchial asthma

b. Drug reaction

c. Toxin exposure

d. Cigarette smokers

b. Hyaluronidase

41. Which of the following can

decrease the viscosity of the

synovial fluid?

a. Physiologic saline

b. Hyaluronidase

c. Acetic acid

d. Distilled water

b. Seen in ALKALINE

urine

42. Amorphous phosphates

a. Seen in ACID urine

b. Seen in ALKALINE

urine

d. Neither A nor B

43. Which of the following

statements below is not true

for Psammoma bodies?

a. Both A and B

b. They may be seen in

benign conditions.

c. They may be

associated with

ovarian and thyroid

malignancies.

d. Neither A nor B

b. The presence of

crystals

44. The synovial fluid submitted

to the laboratory appears

milky. Further evaluation of

the said fluid will most likely

show:

a. The presence of

human milk

b. The presence of

crystals

c. The presence of rice

bodies

d. The presence of

increased WBC count

e. Glucose

45. Urine Tests with the Reagent

Strip Principle of Double

Sequential Enzyme Reaction

a. Specific gravity

b. Nitrite

c. Bilirubin

d. Blood

e. Glucose

d. Mousy

46. Urine odor in

Phenylketonuria

a. Fruity

b. Sweaty feet

c. "Galunggong"

d. Mousy

e. Rancid butter

b. Necrospermia

47. When the spermatozoa are

present in the semen, but

these cells are completely

immotile or dead, the

condition is correctly called:

a. Infertility

b. Necrospermia

c. Oligospermia

d. Azoospermia

c. 0 to 5 WBCs/hpf

48. The normal number of WBCs

in a urine specimen coming

from a healthy individual is:

a. 0 to 5 WBCs/lpf

b. 5 to 15/lpf

c. 0 to 5 WBCs/hpf

d. 5 to 10 WBCs/hpf

a. Seen in ALKALINE

urine

49. Triple phosphates

a. Seen in ALKALINE

urine

b. Seen in ACID urine

b. Magnesium

ammonium phosphate

50. Struvite renal stones are

composed of which of the

following crystals?

a. Calcium oxalate

b. Magnesium

ammonium phosphate

c. Uric acid

d. Calcium sulfate

a. Blood

51. Urine Tests with the Reagent

Strip Principle of

Pseudoperoxidase activity of

hemoglobin

a. Blood

b. Glucose

c. Bilirubin

d. Specific gravity

e. Nitrite

a. Seen in ACID urine

52. Bilirubin

a. Seen in ACID urine

b. Seen in ALKALINE

urine

a. Hydrochloric acid

53. Which of the following is

secreted by the parietal cells

of the stomach?

a. Hydrochloric acid

b. None of these

choices.

c. Pepsinogen

d. Gastrin

b. Ascorbic acid (greater

than 25 mg/dL)

54. All of the following may

cause false positive results

using the reagent strip for

blood, except:

a. Bacterial peroxidases

b. Ascorbic acid (greater

than 25 mg/dL)

c. Menstruation

d. Strong oxidizing

agents

a. Seen in ACID urine

55. Amorphous urates

a. Seen in ACID urine

b. Seen in ALKALINE

urine

a. Nitrite

56. Urine Tests with the Reagent

Strip Principle of Greiss rxn

a. Nitrite

b. Bilirubin

c. Glucose

d. Specific gravity

e. Blood

b. 1,2,3,4,5

57. Which of the following are

considered as functions of

the kidneys? 1. For acid-base

balance 2. For electrolyte

balance 3. Site of urine

formation 4. Secretion of

hormones 5. For

gluconeogenesis

a. 1,2,3,4

b. 1,2,3,4,5

c. 1,3,4

d. 1,2,

b. Second-morning urine

specimen

58. The preferred type of urine

specimen for glucose

determination is:

a. First morning urine

specimen

b. Second-morning urine

specimen

c. Afternoon urine

specimen

d. Four-hour urine

specimen

b. The container's

volume capacity

should be 20 mL.

59. The characteristics of an

ideal urine specimen

container include all of the

following, except:

a. The container must

have a wide mouth.

b. The container's

volume capacity

should be 20 mL.

c. The container must

have a wide bottom.

d. The container must

be made of clear

material.

c. 1.010

60. The plasma filtrate entering

the glomerulus has a specific

gravity of:

a. 1.025

b. 1.030

c. 1.010

d. 1.000

c. Maple syrup urine

disease

61. "Burnt-sugar" odor of urine

is associated with:

a. Isovaleric acidemia

b. Trimethylaminuria

c. Maple syrup urine

disease

d. Tyrosinemia

b. 1 only

62. The acrosomal cap of the

sperm cell is appropriately

described as: 1. An important

factor for ovum penetration

2.Covering approximately 2/3

of the sperm head 3.

Covering approximately 1/2

of the sperm nucleus

a. 2 and 3

b. 1 only

c. 1 and 3

d. 1,2,3

a. Casts are formed

within the distal

convoluted tubules

and collecting ducts.

63. Which of the following

statements related to the

urinary casts is true?

a. Casts are formed

within the distal

convoluted tubules

and collecting ducts.

b. The most commonly

seen kind of casts are

the epithelial cell

casts.

c. The major constituent

of casts is the

albumin.

d. Casts are

characterized with

parallel sides and

tapered ends.

d. Negative (no clot

formation)

64. A CSF specimen was brought

to the laboratory for

examination. The physician

collected it from a newborn

suspected of having

meningitis. He ordered for a

limulus lysate test to

determine if the etiological

agent of the said disease is

Listeria. If the meningitis is

really caused by Listeria,

what result will you expect?

a. Positive (clot

formation)

b. Positive

(agglutination)

c. Negative (no

agglutination)

d. Negative (no clot

formation)

a. Colorless

65. Urine color in Diabetes

insipidus

a. Colorless

b. Orange

c. Black

d. Red

e. Green

b. Dysmorphic cells

66. The urinary structures which

may not be found in

hypotonic urine will include:

a. Ghost cells

b. Dysmorphic cells

c. Glitter cells

c. Hypoproteinemia

67. The usual causes of

transudative effusions

include:

a. Congestive heart

failure

b. Nephrotic syndrome

c. Hypoproteinemia

d. All of these

a. If urine pH is less than

4.5, possible

contamination should

be considered.

68. Which of the following

statements related to urine

pH is true?

a. If urine pH is less than

4.5, possible

contamination should

be considered.

b. Eating meals rich in

meat will promote an

alkaline urine pH.

c. None of the above.

d. Urine pH tends to

decrease as the

specimen is stored.

b. 2 and 5

69. Identify from the following

choices the nonpathologic

causes of urine turbidity: 1.

Non-squamous epithelial cells

2.Mucus 3. Lipids 4.

Leukocytes 5. Semen 6. RBCs

a. 1 and 5

b. 2 and 5

c. 1 and 2

d. 4,5,6

a. Uric acid

70. Which of the following is a

common component of

kidney stones and is derived

from the catabolism of

nucleic acid in food and cell

destruction?

a. Uric acid

b. Creatinine

c. Hippuric acid

d. Fatty acids

a. Nephrotic syndrome

c. Skeletal trauma

71. Lipiduria is associated with:

a. Nephrotic syndrome

b. Porphyria

c. Skeletal trauma

d. Both A and B

e. Colorless

72. Urine color in Diabetes

mellitus

a. Orange

b. Red

c. Black

d. Green

e. Colorless

b. WBC cast

73. Which of the following

urinary casts is

characteristically associated

with acute pyelonephritis?

a. RBC cast

b. WBC cast

c. Waxy cast

d. Fatty cast

b. Bowman's capsule

74. Which of the following

structures is described as a

double-walled globe?

a. Urethra

b. Bowman's capsule

c. Glomerulus

d. Ureter

b. Pair of kidneys

75. Which part of the urinary

system is situated against

the back muscles on each

side of the vertebral column

beneath the diaphragm?

a. Bladder

b. Pair of kidneys

c. Urethra

d. Pair of ureters

e. Fruity

76. Urine odor in Diabetes

mellitus, starvation, vomiting

a. "Galunggong"

b. Mousy

c. Sweaty feet

d. Rancid butter

e. Fruity

d. Losartan

77. All of the following are ACE

inhibitors, except:

a. None of these

b. Captopril

c. Enalapril

d. Losartan

d. Mosenthal test

78. Identify the test that will

measure the concentrating

ability of the renal tubules

from the choices below.

a. PSP test

b. PAH test

c. Cystatin C

d. Mosenthal test

c. 60 to 70% of the

blood level

79. The normal level of glucose

in the CSF is:

a. Below 10 mg/dL

b. 20 to 40% of the

blood level

c. 60 to 70% of the

blood level

d. Twice the blood level

a. Prostate

80. The fluid that contains acid

phosphatase and proteolytic

enzymes in the semen comes

from which part of the male

reproductive system?

a. Prostate

b. Seminal vesicles

c. Testis

d. Epididymis

d. Dip the strip briefly

into a well-mixed

uncentrifuged urine at

room temperature.

81. To properly interpret the

urine reagent strip results,

the medical technologist

should:

a. Dip the strip for at

least 5 seconds into a

well-mixed

uncentrifuged urine at

37 C.

b. Dip the strip for at

least 5 seconds into a

well-mixed

uncentrifuged urine at

room temperature.

c. Dip the strip for at

least 5 seconds into a

well-mixed

centrifuged urine at

room temperature.

d. Dip the strip briefly

into a well-mixed

uncentrifuged urine at

room temperature.

c. It is associated with

vampires.

82. All of these statements

concerning Lesch-Nyhan

disease are true, except:

a. Patients exhibit

"orange sand" in

diapers.

b. It is a disorder of

purine metabolism.

c. It is associated with

vampires.

d. Patients with this

disorder suffer from

severe motor defects,

mental retardation, a

tendency toward

selfdestruction, gout,

and renal calculi.

d. Tyrosinemia

83. A urine specimen that has a

"rancid butter" odor is

associated with:

a. Methionine

malabsorption

b. Phenylketonuria

c. Eating asparagus

d. Tyrosinemia

b. 1,2,3,4,5

84. Identify from the following

choices the reasons for a

false positive result in the

FOBT. 1. Turnips 2. Brocolli

3.Cauliflower 4. Meat in

general 5. Aspirin 6. Ascorbic

acid

a. 2,4,6

b. 1,2,3,4,5

c. 1,3,5

d. 1,2,3,4,5,6

d. All of these

85. Which of the choices below

may be used as a GFR test?

a. β Trace Protein

b. Cystatin C

c. Mannopyranosyl-Ltryptophan (MPT)

d. All of these

a. Tamm-Horsfall protein

86. The chief constituent of casts

is the:

a. Tamm-Horsfall protein

b. Tau transferrin

c. Alpha fetoprotein

d. Bence-Jones protein

a. 1,2,3

87. Identify from the list below

the causes of anuria: 1.

Mercury poisoning 2. Chronic

nephritis 3. Acute nephritis

4.Transfusion reaction

a. 1,2,3

b. 1,2,3,4

c. 1,2,4

d. 1,3,4

d. Small platelets

88. The diameter of the lamellar

body is the similar to that of

the:

a. Monocyte

b. Granulocytes

c. RBC

d. Small platelets

d. Epididymis

89. The spermatozoa mature in

which part of the male

reproductive system?

a. Seminal vesicles

b. Prostate gland

c. Seminiferous tubules

d. Epididymis

a. Carbon-laden cells

90. Which of the following

microscopic structures is

seen in anthracosis, heavy

tobacco smokers and in

people living in a smoky

atmosphere?

a. Carbon-laden cells

b. Heart failure cells

c. Myelin globules

d. Hematoidin crystals

d. Spermatozoa

91. The presence of these cells

is typically not recorded in

routine urinalysis:

a. Squamous cells

b. Yeast cells

c. Renal cells

d. Spermatozoa

d. Red

92. Urine color in

Hemoglobinuria

a. Black

b. Colorless

c. Green

d. Red

e. Orange

b. None of these

93. A fruity odor of urine may be

observed in all of the

following conditions, except:

a. Starvation

b. None of these

c. Vomiting

d. Diabetes mellitus.

a. Urine glucose

94. The most frequently

performed urine chemical

analysis is:

a. Urine glucose

b. Urine protein

c. Urine nitrite

d. Urine pH

a. 4-methoxybenzenediazoniumtetrafluoroborate

95. Urobilinogen is detected

through Chemstrip using this

reagent:

a. 4-methoxybenzenediazoniumtetrafluoroborate

b. Paradimethylaminobenzal

dehyde

c. Sodium nitroprusside

d. Tetramethylbenzidine

c. more than 40 units/L

96. What value of pleural fluid

ADA is highly indicative of

tuberculosis?

a. more than 20 units/L

b. less than 5 units/L

c. more than 40 units/L

d. less than 20 units/L

b. Trace

97. After performing Benedict's

test, the urine specimen

appeared green without any

precipitate. This should be

reported as:

a. 1+

b. Trace

c. 4+

d. Negative

c. Green

98. Urine color in Pseudomonas

spp. infection

a. Red

b. Black

c. Green

d. Orange

e. Colorless

a. All of these

99. Which of the following

descriptions is/are correct for

the glomerular filtrate?

a. All of these

b. It is an ultrafiltrate of

plasma.

c. It has a specific

gravity of 1.010.

d. Its rate of formation is

120 mL per minute

b. Port wine red urine

100. What is the typical color of

urine in lead porphyrinuria?

a. Black

b. Port wine red urine

c. Normal in color

d. Green