Chapter 9 Med Term

What are the smallest formed elements found in blood?
a. Neutrophils
b. Basophils
c. Monocytes
d. Erythrocytes
e. Platelets

E. platelets

Which cell type is responsible for humoral immunity?
a. T cell
b. Monocyte
c. Macrophage
d. B lymphocyte
e. Erythrocyte

D. B lymphocyte

A reticulocyte is a(n):
a. immature neutrophil.
b. blastic RBC.
c. blastic WBC.
d. immature RBC.
e. immature platelet.

D. immature RBC

Which type of blood cell is responsible for the immune response?
a. Neutrophil
b. Lymphocyte
c. Thrombocyte
d. Granulocyte
e. Erythrocyte

B. lymphocyte

Phagocytosis is a function of which of the following cells?
a. Macrocytes
b. Erythrocytes
c. Macrophages
d. Thrombocytes
e. Reticulocytes

C. macrophages

Histamines and heparin are released by:
a. monocytes.
b. erythrocytes.
c. macrophages.
d. neutrophils.
e. basophils.

E. basophils

The liquid medium of blood is:
a. plasma.
b. myeloid tissue.
c. hemoglobin.
d. heparin.
e. fibrinogen.

A. plasma

Blood plasma minus fibrinogen and other clotting factors is:
a. serum.
b. heparin.
c. thromboplastin.
d. cytoplasm.
e. histamine.

A. serum

Destruction of old RBCs is a function of the:
a. bone marrow.
b. spleen.
c. tonsils.
d. thymus.
e. lymph nodes.

B. spleen

Which two blood cells are chiefly responsible for acquired immunity?
a. Lymphocytes and platelets
b. Platelets and leukocytes
c. Monocytes and platelets
d. Leukocytes and lymphocytes
e. Monocytes and lymphocytes

E. monocytes and lymphocytes

The primary function of platelets is:
a. phagocytosis.
b. plasma formation.
c. cellular immunity.
d. antigen formation.
e. blood clotting.

E. blood clotting

The chief component of blood plasma is:
a. water.
b. plasma proteins.
c. electrolytes.
d. hormones.
e. excretory products.

A. water

Blood development is called:
a. autoimmunity.
b. hematocrit.
c. hematopoiesis.
d. hemostasis.
e. dyscrasia.

C. hematopoiesis

What is a sentinel node?
a. Largest node in a body area
b. Largest node in the entire body
c. Node that first receives drainage from a cancer-containing area
d. Node that is sensitive to pain
e. Node that does not have T or B cells

C. Node that first receives drainage from a cancer-containing area

The chemical messengers that initiate, inhibit, increase, or decrease activity in other cells are called:
a. proteins.
b. albumins.
c. immunoglobulins.
d. cytokines.
e. cytotoxins.

D. cytokines

The combining form (CF) neutr/o means:
a. unknown.
b. strange.
c. neither.
d. different.
e. same.

C. neither

The CF sider/o means:
a. net.
b. protein.
c. different.
d. shape.
e. iron.

E. iron

The CF chrom/o means:
a. net.
b. embryonic.
c. different.
d. change.
e. color.

E. color

The CF xen/o means:
a. dry.
b. foreign, strange.
c. net, mesh.
d. iron.
e. change.

B. foreign, strange

The CF poikil/o means:
a. varied, irregular.
b. foreign.
c. pointed.
d. iron.
e. swallowing, eating.

A. varied, irregular

The CF kary/o means:
a. strange, foreign.
b. granule.
c. dawn (rose-colored).
d. gland.
e. nucleus.

E. nucleus

The CF blast/o means:
a. granule.
b. gland.
c. embryonic cell.
d. clumping, gluing.
e. color.

C. embryonic cell

The CF thromb/o means:
a. throbbing.
b. blood clot.
c. chest.
d. thymus.
e. spleen.

B. blood clot

The suffix -stasis means:
a. remain.
b. blood condition.
c. protein.
d. standing still.
e. decrease.

D. standing still

The suffix -phoresis means:
a. decrease.
b. formation.
c. attraction.
d. protein formation.
e. carrying, transmission.

E. carrying, transmission

The suffix -phil means:
a. decrease, deficiency.
b. protection.
c. formation, production.
d. attraction for.
e. formation.

D. attraction for

The suffix -phylaxis means:
a. protection.
b. carrying, transmission.
c. decrease, deficiency.
d. standing still.
e. formation, production.

A. protection

The suffix -penia means:
a. attraction for.
b. decrease, deficiency.
c. abnormal condition.
d. standing still.
e. carrying, transmission.

B. decrease, deficiency

The prefix iso- means:
a. unequal.
b. small.
c. lacking, without.
d. same, equal.
e. varied.

D. same, equal

The prefix allo- means:
a. other, differing from normal.
b. unequal, dissimilar.
c. one.
d. much, many.
e. same, equal.

A. other, differing from normal

Which term means the ability to develop an immune response?
a. Healthy
b. Immunocompetent
c. Vigorous
d. Apathy
e. Immunodeficiency

B. immunocompetent

Disease of a gland is a(n):
a. immunodeficiency.
b. thymopathy.
c. adenopathy.
d. adenomegaly.
e. adenoiditis.

C. adenopathy

A mass of extravasated, usually clotted blood found in tissues or organs is called:
a. hemostasis.
b. hemophilia.
c. hematin.
d. hemangioma.
e. hematoma.

E. hematoma

Inflammation of the spleen is called:
a. splenitis.
b. splenorrhea.
c. splenoptosis.
d. splenocele.
e. splenorrhagia.

A. splenitis

The oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is deficient in which condition?
a. Hypoxia
b. Hypoxemia
c. Anemia
d. Leukemia
e. Polycythemia

C. anemia

Which type of anemia involves severe pain caused by crescent-shaped RBCs that are unable to pass through blood vessels?
a. Sickle cell anemia
b. Aplastic anemia
c. Hemolytic anemia
d. Pernicious anemia
e. Iron deficiency anemia

A. sickle cell anemia

A life-threatening allergic reaction is called:
a. sensitization.
b. apoplexy.
c. syncope.
d. anaphylaxis.
e. induration.

D. anaphylaxis

A skin rash associated with an allergy is called:
a. urticaria.
b. bullae.
c. fissure.
d. ulcer.
e. papillae.

A. urticaria

Flare up of an autoimmune disease is called:
a. syncope.
b. induration.
c. remission.
d. urticaria.
e. exacerbation.

E. exacerbation

The process in which a transplant recipient's immune system attacks the transplanted organ or tissue is called:
a. disseminated intravascular coagulation.
b. viscerogenic.
c. graft vs. host disease.
d. graft rejection.
e. graft elimination.

D. graft rejection

Malignant tumor of plasma cells in bone marrow is called:
a. leukemia.
b. lymphadenopathy.
c. multiple myeloma.
d. osteoma.
e. osteocarcinoma.

C. multiple myelome

The presence of bacteria or their toxins in blood is called:
a. sepsis.
b. hemolysis.
c. bacteruria.
d. hemosiderin.
e. hemophilia.

A. sepsis

Pinpoint hemorrhages that appear on the lower leg, usually associated with decreased platelets, are called:
a. ecchymosis.
b. petechiae.
c. butterfly rash.
d. hematoma.
e. extravasation.

B. petechiae

What is a viral disorder caused by the Epstein-Barr virus?
a. Thrombocytopenia
b. Von Willebrand disease
c. Thrombocythemia
d. Anemia
e. Infectious mononucleosis

E. infectious mononucleosis

A decrease in the number of circulating RBCs is called:
a. erythrophilia.
b. erythrocytosis.
c. erythropenia.
d. erythemia.
e. erythroblastosis.

C. erythropenia

Which type of anemia is caused by bone marrow failure?
a. Aplastic
b. Hemolytic
c. Hemorrhagic
d. Pernicious
e. Sickle cell

A. aplastic

The term pruritus means:
a. inflammation.
b. clumping.
c. extreme itching.
d. infection.
e. coagulation.

C. extreme itching

Patients with AIDS commonly develop:
a. liver cancer.
b. dementia.
c. opportunistic infections.
d. multiple myeloma.
e. chronic anemia.

C. opportunistic infections

The initial exposure to an allergen is called:
a. sensitization.
b. immunocompetency.
c. urticaria.
d. induration.
e. anaphylaxis.

A. sensitization

An extreme, life-threatening response to an allergen is called:
a. induration.
b. anaphylaxis.
c. asthma.
d. sensitization.
e. autoimmunity.

B. anaphylaxis

A major cause of edema is:
a. HIV.
b. anemia.
c. polycythemia.
d. hypoproteinemia.
e. erythrocytosis.

D. hypoproteinemia

Which hereditary disorder involves impairment of the blood-clotting mechanism?
a. Anemia
b. Leukemia
c. Infectious mononucleosis
d. Polycythemia
e. Hemophilia

E. hemophilia

Complications of infectious mononucleosis include:
a. hepatomegaly and splenomegaly.
b. hepatomegaly and gastromegaly.
c. gastromegaly and ascites.
d. splenomegaly and anemia.
e. anemia and hemarthrosis.

A. hepatomegaly and splenomegaly

Which disorder is associated with a "butterfly rash" on the nose and cheeks?
a. Leukemia
b. Multiple myeloma
c. Systemic lupus erythematosus
d. Infectious mononucleosis
e. HIV

C. systemic lupus erythematosus

An abnormal sticky protein that lines the blood vessels causing clot formation is called:
a. albumen.
b. globulin.
c. fibrinogen.
d. von Willebrand factor.
e. hemosiderin.

D. von Willebrand factor

Which treatment alters, enhances, stimulates, or restores the body's natural immune mechanisms to treat disease?
a. Biopsy
b. Bone marrow aspiration
c. Radiation therapy
d. Immunotherapy
e. Chemotherapy

D. immunotherapy

Which type of transplant is prepared from the recipient's own bone marrow?
a. Autologous
b. Homologous
c. Heterologous
d. Xenograft
e. Allograft

A. autologous

Which type of bone marrow transplant is prepared from a compatible donor?
a. Autologous
b. Homologous
c. Heterologous
d. Xenograft
e. Heterograft

B. homologous

Which laboratory test is used to diagnose pernicious anemia?
a. Hematocrit
b. Complete blood count
c. Monospot
d. Schilling
e. Von Willebrand

D. schilling

Which test measures the time it takes for plasma to form a clot?
a. Partial prothrombin time
b. Partial thromboplastin time
c. Prothrombin time
d. Factor VIII
e. Prothrombin elucidation

C. prothrombin time

Which type of test is commonly used to identify blood disorders such as leukemia?
a. Bone marrow aspiration
b. Sentinel node excision
c. Antinuclear antibody
d. Blood culture
e. Blood typing

A. bone marrow aspiration

Which procedure is used to completely remove lymph nodes in an area containing cancer?
a. Partial lymphangiectomy
b. Total lymphangiectomy
c. Sentinel node excision
d. Radical lymphadenectomy
e. Partial lymphadenectomy

D. radical lymphadenectomy

Which treatment uses immune system stimulators to enhance the immune response?
a. Immunosuppression
b. Biotherapy
c. Immunodiffusion
d. Immunophoresis
e. Immunoprecipitation

B. biotherapy

Which serology test is used to diagnose infectious mononucleosis?
a. Schilling
b. Von Willebrand
c. Complete blood count
d. Prothrombin time
e. Monospot

E. monospot

Which test is used to screen for deficiencies of some clotting factors?
a. Partial thromboplastin time
b. Prothrombin time
c. Coumadin
d. Schilling
e. Complete blood count

A. partial thromboplastin time

Which form of treatment alters or enhances the body's natural immune mechanisms to treat diseases?
a. Immunosuppression
b. Immunodiffusion
c. Radiotherapy
d. Chemotherapy
e. Immunotherapy

E. immunotherapy

Incision of a vein is called:
a. venostasis.
b. phlebotomy.
c. phleborrhaphy.
d. phlebectopia.
e. venostomy.

B. phlebotomy

A homologous transplant is also called a(n):
a. heterograft.
b. heterologous transplant.
c. xenograft.
d. autograft.
e. allogenic transplant.

E. allogenic transplant

Excision of the thymus is called:
a. thymorrhaphy.
b. thymostomy.
c. thymotomy.
d. thymocentesis.
e. thymectomy.

E. thymectomy

Infusion of blood for therapeutic purposes is called:
a. culture.
b. transplant.
c. transfusion.
d. dialysis.
e. chemotherapy.

C. transfusion

Which laboratory test identifies antibodies that attack the individual's own body cells?
a. Bone marrow
b. Antinuclear antibody
c. Blood typing
d. Complete blood count
e. Blood culture

B. antinuclear antibody

Which procedure involves removal of nodes from an area of malignancy in an effort to control the spread of cancer?
a. Lymphangiotomy
b. Lymphangiectasis
c. Lymphadenectomy
d. Lymphadenotomy
e. Lymphangiography

C. lymphadenectomy

Which test determines the presence of pathogens in the blood?
a. Complete blood count
b. Antinuclear antibody
c. Monospot
d. Blood culture
e. Transfusion

D. blood culture

Which imaging test uses "tracers" to determine lymph flow or lymph obstructions?
a. Lymphoscintigraphy
b. Lymphangiography
c. Magnetic resonance imaging
d. X-ray
e. Computed tomography

A. lymphoscintigraphy

Which sensitive imaging procedure detects abnormalities in bone marrow, especially in multiple myeloma?
a. Bone marrow x-ray
b. Bone marrow CT
c. Lymphoscintigraphy
d. Bone marrow MRI
e. Lymphangiography

D. bone marrow MRI

Which agents prevent blood clot formation in deep veins?
a. Anticoagulants
b. Antifibrinolytics
c. Thrombolytics
d. Thrombostatics
e. Hemostatics

A. anticoagulants

Which abbreviation refers to a disease associated with infectious mononucleosis?
a. CBC
b. ALL
c. AIDS
d. PCP
e. EBV

E. EBV

Which abbreviation stands for mononuclear leukocytes?
a. NK cells
b. eos
c. PMN
d. MNL
e. PT

D. MNL

Which abbreviation denotes a common blood screening test?
a. PCP
b. CBC
c. CLL
d. APTT
e. AML

B. CBC

Which abbreviation denotes a disease associated with "butterfly rash"?
a. CLL
b. EBV
c. SLE
d. PCP
e. AIDS

C. SLE

Which abbreviation denotes a test that measures the time for plasma to form a clot?
a. PTT
b. PT
c. CBC
d. APTT
e. RBC

B. PT

Which classification of drugs dissolves blood clots?
a. Antimicrobials
b. Antibiotics
c. Thrombolytics
d. Antivirals
e. Fat soluble vitamins

C. thrombolytics

Which classification of drugs is a prophylactic treatment in HIV patients to prevent development of Pneumocystis pneumonia?
a. Antimicrobials
b. Thrombolytics
c. Antibiotics
d. Antivirals
e. Fat soluble vitamins

A. antimicrobials

Which classification of drugs is used to treat patients with hemophilia following certain surgeries and dental procedures?
a. Antimicrobials
b. Antifibrinolytics
c. Thrombolytics
d. Antivirals
e. Fat soluble vitamins

B. antifibrinolytics

Which classification of drugs treats HIV infection by preventing the replication of viruses?
a. Fat soluble vitamins
b. Antibiotics
c. Antifibrolynics
d. Thrombolytics
e. Antivirals

E. antivirals

T/F: Sickle cell anemia is a type of poikilocytosis.

true

T/F: Edema is a condition in which fluid collects in the peritoneal or pleural cavity.

false

T/F: An abnormal heightened immune response is a characteristic of HIV.

false

T/F: Hemolytic anemia is characterized by the abnormal destruction of RBCs.

true

T/F: Sickle-cell anemia crisis affects only those who have inherited the trait from a single parent.

false

T/F: Kaposi sarcoma is a malignancy of connective tissue, including bone and muscle.

true

T/F: Autoimmunity is the failure of the body to distinguish accurately between "self" and "nonself."

true

T/F: Hemophilia is also called "bleeder's disease."

true

T/F: Recovery from anemia generally ensures a lasting immunity.

false

T/F: Immunotherapy refers to the treatment of disease by employing radiation to destroy the immune system.

false

T/F: Hemophilia treatment consists of intravenous administration of the deficient factor.

true

T/F: Bone marrow aspiration and bone marrow biopsy are used to diagnose leukemia.

true

T/F: Current treatment of Kaposi sarcoma is usually palliative, relieving the pain that accompanies the lesion.

true

T/F: Complete blood count is a broad screening for anemias, coagulation disorders, and infections.

true

T/F: Antinuclear antibody test is used to identify antibodies that attack the tissues of an incompatible blood donor.

false