BCR TBL 15 - Respiratory Infections

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192 Terms

1
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What is the primary function of alveolar macrophages?

Phagocytosis of inhaled pathogens and debris

2
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Which class of antibodies is primarily involved in mucosal defense in the lungs?

Secretory IgA

3
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Which cytokine activates macrophages in TB infection?

Interferon-gamma (IFN-γ)

4
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What is the typical cell type found in viral pneumonitis?

Mononuclear inflammatory cells (lymphocytes)

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Which pneumonia type is characterized by patchy inflammation of multiple lobules?

Bronchopneumonia

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What is the first radiological investigation for suspected pneumonia?

Chest X-ray (CXR)

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Which pneumonia has diffuse alveolar damage and hyaline membrane formation?

Viral pneumonia

8
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What is the mechanism of action of neuraminidase inhibitors in influenza treatment?

Prevent release of new virions from infected cells

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Which viral pneumonia presents with nonproductive cough and bilateral infiltrates?

Atypical viral pneumonia

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What is a typical microscopic finding in fungal pneumonia?

Granulomas with fungal hyphae or spores

11
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Which pathogen often causes pneumonia in patients with leukemia or lymphoma?

Aspergillus fumigatus

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Which respiratory infection is notifiable by public health authorities?

Tuberculosis

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Which structure traps particles in inhaled air before they reach the lungs?

Nasal turbinates and mucosa

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What is the most common site of TB reactivation in the lungs?

Upper lobes

15
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Which respiratory virus can cause myocarditis in addition to pneumonia?

Influenza virus

16
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What is the pathophysiological reason for consolidation in bacterial pneumonia?

Alveolar spaces filled with neutrophils and exudate

17
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Which condition impairs mucociliary clearance and predisposes to infection?

Primary ciliary dyskinesia

18
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What condition is caused by Blastomyces dermatitidis?

Fungal pneumonia, Blastomycosis

19
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What feature distinguishes fungal from bacterial pneumonia histologically?

Fungi are seen with special stains like GMS; bacteria are not

20
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What is a common opportunistic lung infection after bone marrow transplantation?

Invasive aspergillosis

21
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What is the significance of ground-glass opacities on a CT scan?

Associated with viral or fungal pneumonias (e.g., PCP)

22
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Which test is used to confirm diagnosis of CMV pneumonia?

PCR or immunohistochemistry on tissue

23
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What is the characteristic host cell finding in CMV infection?

Owl’s eye intranuclear inclusions

24
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Which pneumonias commonly present with hemoptysis?

TB, Klebsiella, Aspergillosis

25
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What infection risk increases after measles infection in children?

Secondary bacterial pneumonia

26
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What is the key treatment principle for TB?

Multi-drug therapy for 6–9 months

27
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Which infection is typically associated with droplet transmission?

Influenza virus

28
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Which component of host defense is compromised in agammaglobulinemia?

Antibody production (B cells)

29
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What respiratory pathogen is commonly associated with pet birds?

Chlamydophila psittaci

30
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Which pathogen causes Q fever pneumonia?

Coxiella burnetii

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What is the name of the histological lesion in primary TB?

Ghon complex

32
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Which test is used to detect acid-fast bacilli in sputum?

ZN stain (Ziehl-Neelsen)

33
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Which bacteria associated with pneumonia forms biofilms in the lungs?

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

34
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Which diagnostic method is most specific for viral respiratory infections?

Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)

35
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What is a key sign of pleural involvement in pneumonia?

Pleuritic chest pain and reduced breath sounds

36
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Which bacteria is associated with cold agglutinin hemolytic anemia?

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

37
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Which type of pneumonia may result from seizures or alcohol intoxication?

Aspiration pneumonia

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Which respiratory infection requires airborne precautions in hospitals?

Tuberculosis

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Which pneumonia is endemic to the southwestern US and known as “Valley fever”?

Coccidioidomycosis

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What structure acts as the final barrier to alveolar infection?

Type I and II pneumocytes

41
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Which part of the immune system is most important in defense against TB?

Cell-mediated immunity

42
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Which test measures delayed-type hypersensitivity to TB antigens?

Tuberculin skin test (TST)

43
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What complication is common in untreated pneumonia?

Empyema or lung abscess

44
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Which viral pathogen can be shed in stool during respiratory illness?

Adenovirus

45
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Which lung defense is enhanced by surfactant proteins A and D?

Opsonization and microbial clearance

46
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Which bacteria has a polysaccharide capsule and causes meningitis and pneumonia?

Streptococcus pneumoniae

47
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What is the role of ciliated epithelial cells in the airway?

Propel mucus and trapped particles out of the lungs

48
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Which bacteria causes pneumonia after influenza due to protease activation?

Staphylococcus aureus

49
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What is a major symptom differentiating typical vs atypical pneumonia?

Typical has productive cough; atypical has dry cough

50
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Which pneumonia type shows interstitial rather than alveolar involvement?

Viral or atypical pneumonia

51
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Which fungal infection causes spherules with endospores in tissue?

Coccidioides immitis

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What type of pneumonia is associated with eosinophilia in tissue?

Eosinophilic pneumonia (e.g., parasitic)

53
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What is the most common pathogen in ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)?

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

54
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Which immune dysfunction increases risk of encapsulated bacterial pneumonia?

Splenectomy or functional asplenia

55
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Which condition predisposes to recurrent lower respiratory tract infections?

Cystic fibrosis

56
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Which TB complication results from hematogenous spread?

Miliary tuberculosis

57
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Which test is used to monitor TB treatment response?

Sputum culture and microscopy

58
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What organism can cause both pneumonia and meningitis in neonates?

Group B Streptococcus

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Which virus has the potential to cause pneumonia and congenital infection?

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

60
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Which bacteria causes pneumonia with red currant jelly sputum and lung necrosis?

Klebsiella pneumoniae

61
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Which fungal infection is most likely in HIV patients with CD4 <100?

Cryptococcosis

62
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Which pathogen is known for branching septate hyphae at 45° angles?

Aspergillus species

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What host defense is disrupted by smoking and air pollution?

Ciliary function

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What is the primary site of entry for respiratory viruses?

Upper respiratory mucosa

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Which lung structure contains surfactant-secreting cells?

Type II pneumocytes in alveoli

66
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Which viral pneumonia is most likely in closed communities (e.g., military)?

Adenovirus

67
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Which bacteria is detected via urine antigen test in pneumonia?

Legionella pneumophila

68
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What symptom often indicates severe lower respiratory tract involvement?

Dyspnea

69
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Which bacteria are most commonly associated with aspiration pneumonia?

Anaerobes (e.g., Bacteroides, Fusobacterium)

70
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Which virus commonly causes pneumonia in patients with hematologic malignancies?

CMV (Cytomegalovirus)

71
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What is the characteristic clinical triad of TB?

Fever, night sweats, weight loss

72
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Which immune cells are depleted in HIV leading to PCP pneumonia?

CD4+ T cells

73
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Which respiratory virus can cause otitis media as a complication?

RSV

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What is the most common co-infection in influenza-related mortality?

Staphylococcus aureus

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Which bacteria causes pneumonia and is also a common cause of otitis media?

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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Which bacteria causes pneumonia in animal handlers and is zoonotic?

Coxiella burnetii

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Which test is most sensitive for detecting COVID-19 pneumonia?

Real-time PCR (RT-PCR)

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What is the incubation period for influenza virus?

1–4 days

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Which pathogen causes pneumonia with mediastinal widening on CXR?

Bacillus anthracis

80
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What is the most important vaccination for elderly to prevent pneumonia?

Pneumococcal vaccine

81
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Which TB form involves lymph nodes, pleura, or bones?

Extrapulmonary tuberculosis

82
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Which virus causes pneumonia and sometimes hemorrhagic cystitis?

Adenovirus

83
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What bacteria is linked to pneumonia in patients with recent travel or water exposure?

Legionella pneumophila

84
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What is the common route of spread in miliary TB?

Hematogenous dissemination

85
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Which pneumonia can present with confusion and diarrhea?

Legionnaires’ disease

86
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What diagnostic test detects fungal cell wall component β-D-glucan?

Serum beta-glucan assay

87
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Which stain highlights encapsulated fungi in cerebrospinal fluid?

India ink

88
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Which bacteria causes pneumonia with a rapid onset and pleuritic pain?

Streptococcus pneumoniae

89
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What is a common symptom of atypical pneumonia?

Low-grade fever and dry cough

90
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Which virus can cause pneumonia with bilateral perihilar infiltrates in neonates?

CMV

91
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What test confirms diagnosis of Histoplasma pneumonia?

Urine or serum antigen detection

92
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Which pathogen is found in moist environments and forms biofilms in lungs?

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

93
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Which pneumonia causes upper lobe cavitation and sputum positivity for AFB?

Tuberculosis

94
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What is the diagnostic feature of Nocardia pneumonia?

Filamentous, weakly acid-fast branching rods

95
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What is a complication of untreated cavitary TB?

Bronchopleural fistula

96
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Which part of the lung is most often affected in primary TB?

Lower or middle lobes (Ghon focus)

97
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What is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)?

Streptococcus pneumoniae

98
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Which virus uses ACE2 receptors to enter host cells?

SARS-CoV-2 (COVID-19)

99
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What is the main function of the mucociliary escalator?

To remove inhaled pathogens via ciliary movement and mucus

100
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Which bacterium causes tuberculosis?

Mycobacterium tuberculosis