ATPL OXFORD CHAPTERS (1,2,5,6,7,8,10)

1. An aircraft's mass is a result of:

How much matter it contains

2. The unit of mass is the:

Kilogram

3. The definition of a force is

A push or a pull

4. The unit of force is the:

Newton

5. The unit of weight is the:

Newton

6. Weight is the result of

The force on mass due to gravity

7. About which point does an aircraft rotate:

centre of gravity

8. If a force is applied to a mass and the mass does not move

No work is done

10. The unit of power is called the:

Watt

9. The unit of work is called the:

Joule

11. If a force of 20 Newton's moves a mass 5 metres:
1 - the work done is 100 Nm
2 - the work done is 100 Joules
3 - the work done is 4 Joules
4 - the work done is 0.25 Joules
The correct statements

1 and 2

12. If a force of 50 Newton's is applied to a 10 kg mass and the mass moves 10 metres and a force of 50 Newton's is applied to a 100 kg mass which moves 10 metres:

The work done is the same in both cases

13. The definition of power is:

The rate of doing work

14. If a force of 500 Newton's moves a mass 1000 metres in 2 mins, the power used is:

4167 Watts

15. Kinetic energy is:

The energy a mass possesses because of its motion

16. The unit of kinetic energy is the:

Joule

17. When considering kinetic energy:

2 and 4

The property of inertia is said to be:

The opposition which a body offers to a change in motion

Considering Newton's first law of motion:

3 and 4

20. Considering Newton's second law of motion:
1 - every action has an equal and opposite reaction
2 - if the same force is applied, the larger the mass the slower the acceleration
3 - if two forces are applied to the same mass, the bigger the force the greater the acceleration
4 - the acceleration of a body from a state of rest, or uniform motion in a straight line, is proportional to the applied force and inversely proportional to the mass The combination of true statements is:

2, 3 and 4

21. Newton's third law of motion states:

Every action has an equal and opposite reaction

22. The definition of velocity is the:

Rate of change of displacement

23. When considering acceleration:
1 - acceleration is the rate of change of velocity
2 - the units of acceleration are metres per second
3 - the units of acceleration are kilogram-metres per second
4 - the units of acceleration are seconds per metre per metre
The combination of correct statements is:

1 only

24. The definition of momentum is:

The quantity of motion possessed by a body

25. A force of 24 Newton's moves a 10 kg mass 60 metres in 1 minute, the power used is:
1 - 24 Watts
2 - 240 Watts
3 - Force times distance moved in one second
4 - Force times the distance the mass is moved in one second
Which of the preceding statements are correct

1, 3 and 4

26. When considering momentum:
1 - Momentum is the quantity of motion possessed by a body
2 - Momentum is the tendency of a body to continue in motion after being placed in motion
3 - A mass of 2000 kg moving at 55 m/s has 110,000 kg-m/s of momentum
4 - A large mass moving at 50 m/s will have less momentum than a small mass moving at 50 m/s
The correct combination of statements is:

1, 2 and 3

An aircraft's critical Mach number is; a. The speed of the airflow when the aircraft first becomes supersonic
b. The speed of the aircraft when the airflow somewhere reaches the speed of sound
c. The Indicated Airspeed when the aircraft first becomes supersonic
d. The aircraft's Mach number when airflow over it first reaches the local speed of sound

d. The aircraft's Mach number when airflow over it first reaches the local speed of sound

Mach number is:
a. The aircraft True Air Speed divided by the local speed of sound b. The speed of sound in the ambient conditions in which the aircraft is flying
c. The True Air Speed of the aircraft at which the relative airflow somewhere on the aircraft first reaches the local speed of sound
d. The Indicated Air Speed divided by the local speed of sound sea level

a. The aircraft True Air Speed divided by the local speed of sound

When considering the relationship between different types of air speed:
1 - Calibrated Air Speed is Indicated Air Speed corrected for position error
2 - Equivalent Air Speed is Indicated Air Speed corrected for position error and compressibility
3 - Position error, which causes false Indicated Air Speed readings, is due to variations in the pressures sensed at the pitot and static ports 4 - The Air Speed Indicator is calibrated to read True Air Speed when the ambient density is that of the ICAO International Standard Atmosphere at sea level

The combination of correct statements is:

a. Non of the statements are correct b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

c. 2 and 3

When considering the relationship between different types of air speed:
1 - True Air Speed (TAS) is read directly from the Air Speed Indicator
2 - Equivalent Air Speed is Indicated Air Speed corrected for position error
3 - Indicated Air Speed is not a speed at all, i's a pressure
4 - True Air Speed is the speed of the aircraft through the air Which of the above statements are true:
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4

c. 3 and 4

When considering air:
1 - Air has mass
2 - Air is not compressible
3 - Air is able to flow or change its shape when subject to even small pressures
4- The viscosity of air is very high
5 - Moving air has kinetic energy The correct combination of all true statements is:
a. 1, 2, 3 and 5
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1 and 4
d. 1, 3, and 5

d. 1, 3, and 5

Why do the lower layers contain the greater proportion of the whole mass of the atmosphere:
a. Because air is very viscous
b. Because air is compressible
c. Because of greater levels of humidity at low altitude
d. Because air has very little mass

b. Because air is compressible

With increasing altitude, up to about 40,000 ft, the characteristics of air change: 1 - Temperature decreases continuously with altitude 2 - Pressure falls steadily to an altitude of about 36,000 ft, where it then remains constant 3 - Density decreases steadily with increasing altitude 4 - Pressure falls steadily with increasing altitude The combination of true statements is:
a. 3 and 4
b. 1, 2 and
3 c. 2 and 4
d. 1 and 4

a. 3 and 4

When considering static pressure:
1 - In aviation, static pressure can be measured in hectopascal=s
2 - The SI units for static pressure is N/m2
3 - Static pressure is the product of the mass of air pressing down on the air beneath
4 - Referred to as static pressure because of the air's stationary or static presence
5 - The lower the altitude, the greater the static pressure

The correct statements are:
a. 2, 4 and 5
b. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
c. 1, 3 and 5
d. 1 and 5

b. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

When considering air density:
1 - Density is measured in millibar=s 2 - Density increases with increasing altitude
3 - If temperature increases the density will increase
4 - As altitude increases, density will decrease
5 - Temperature decreases with increasing altitude, this will cause air density to increase

The combination of correct statements is:
a. 4 only
b. 4 and 5
c. 5 only
d. 2, 3 and 5

a. 4 only

Air density is:
a. Mass per unit volume
b. Proportional to temperature and inversely proportional to pressure
c. Independent of both temperature and pressure
d. Dependent only on decreasing pressure with increasing altitude

a. Mass per unit volume

When considering the ICAO International Standard Atmosphere and comparing it with the actual atmosphere, which of the following statements is correct:
1 - Temperature, pressure and density are constantly changing in any given layer of the actual atmosphere
2 - A requirement exists for a hypothetical 'standard' atmosphere
3 - The values given in the International Standard Atmosphere exist at a the same altitudes in the actual atmosphere
4 - The International Standard Atmosphere was designed for the calibration of pressure instruments and the comparison of aircraft performance calculations

a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4

d. 1, 2 and 4

When considering the ICAO International Standard Atmosphere, which of the following statements is correct:
1 - The temperature lapse rate is assumed to be uniform at 2°C per 1,000 ft (1.98°C. up to a height of 11,000 ft
2 - Sea level temperature is assumed to be 15°C
3 - Sea level static pressure is assumed to be 1.225 kg/m3
4 - Sea level density is assumed to be 1013.25 hPa

a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. No statements are correct
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 2 only

d. 2 only

A moving mass of air possesses kinetic energy. An object placed in the path of such a moving mass of air will be subject to which of the following:
a. Dynamic pressure
b. Static Pressure
c. Static pressure and dynamic pressure
d. Dynamic pressure minus static pressure

c .Static pressure and dynamic pressure

Dynamic pressure is:
a. The total pressure at a point where a moving airflow is brought completely to rest
b. The amount by which the pressure rises at a point where a moving airflow is brought completely to rest
c. The pressure due to the mass of air pressing down on the air beneath
d. The pressure change caused by heating when a moving airflow is brought completely to rest

b. The amount by which the pressure rises at a point where a moving airflow is brought completely to rest

Dynamic pressure is equal to:
a. Density times speed squared
b. Half the density times the indicated airspeed squared
c. Half the true airspeed times the density squared
d. Half the density times the true airspeed squared

d. Half the density times the true airspeed squared

A tube facing into an airflow will experience a pressure in the tube equal to:
a. Static pressure
b. Dynamic pressure
c. Static pressure plus dynamic pressure
d. The difference between total pressure and static pressure

c. Static pressure plus dynamic pressure

A static pressure vent must be positioned:
a. On a part of the aircraft structure where the airflow is undisturbed, in a surface at right angles to the airflow direction
b. On a part of the structure where the airflow is undisturbed, in a surface parallel to the airflow direction
c. At the stagnation point
d. At the point on the surface where the airflow reaches the highest speed

b. On a part of the structure where the airflow is undisturbed, in a surface parallel to the airflow direction

The inputs to an Air Speed Indicator are from:
a. A static source
b. Pitot pressure
c. A pitot and a static source
d. Pitot, static and density

c. A pitot and a static source

The deflection of the pointer of the Air Speed Indicator is proportional to:
a. Dynamic pressure
b. Static pressure
c. The difference between static and dynamic pressure
d. Static pressure plus dynamic pressure

a. Dynamic pressure

The speed of sound:
a. Is dependent upon the True Air Speed and the Mach number of the aircraft
b. Is inversely proportional to the absolute temperature
c. Is proportional to the square root of the absolute temperature of the air
d. Is directly proportional to the True Air Speed of the aircraft

c. Is proportional to the square root of the absolute temperature of the air

Calibration of the Air Speed Indicator is based upon the density: a. At the altitude at which the aircraft is flying
b. At sea level ICAO International Standard Atmosphere temperature c. At sea level
d. At sea level ICAO International Standard Atmosphere +15°C temperature

b. At sea level ICAO International Standard Atmosphere temperature

To maintain altitude, what must be done as Indicated Air Speed (IAS) is reduced:
a. Decrease angle of attack to reduce the drag.
b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force.
c. Deploy the speed brakes to increase drag.
d. Reduce thrust

b. Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force.

If more lift force is required because of greater operating weight, what must be done to fly at the angle of attack which corresponds to CL MAX:
a. Increase the angle of attack.
b. Nothing, the angle of attack for CL MAX is constant.
c. It is impossible to fly at the angle of attack that corresponds to CL MAX.
d. Increase the Indicated Air Speed (IAS).

d. Increase the Indicated Air Speed (IAS).

Which of the following statements is correct: 1 To generate a constant lift force, any adjustment in IAS must be accompanied by a change in angle of attack. 2 For a constant lift force, each IAS requires a specific angle of attack. 3 Minimum IAS is determined by CL MAX. 4 The greater the operating weight, the higher the minimum IAS.
a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 4 only
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

What effect does landing at high altitude airports have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and aeroplane weight:
a. Higher than at low altitude.
b. The same as at low altitude.
c. Lower than at low altitude.
d. Dynamic pressure will be the same at any altitude.

a. Higher than at low altitude.

What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect:
a. A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack.
b. An increase in induced drag and a requirement for a higher angle of attack.
c. An increase in dynamic stability.
d. A decrease in induced drag requiring a smaller angle of attack

b. An increase in induced drag and a requirement for a higher angle of attack.

What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased:
a. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack.
b. The same true airspeed and angle of attack.
c. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack.
d. A constant angle of attack and true air speed.

a. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack.

How can an aeroplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect:
a. A lower angle of attack.
b. A higher angle of attack.
c. The same angle of attack.
d. The same angle of attack, but a lower IAS.

a. A lower angle of attack.

By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the aeroplane's:
a. Lift and airspeed, but not drag.
b. Lift, gross weight, and drag.
c. Lift, airspeed, and drag.
d. Lift and drag, but not airspeed.

c. Lift, airspeed, and drag.

Which flight conditions of a large jet aeroplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength:
a. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up.
b. Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down.
c. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down.
d. Weight, gear and flaps make no difference.

a. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up.

Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is:
a. Using high power settings.
b. Operating at high airspeeds.
c. Developing lift.
d. Operating at high altitude

c. Developing lift.

Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to:
a. Rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude.
b. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence.
c. Accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began.
d. Dissipate very slowly when the surface wind is strong.

b. Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence.

How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip, when viewed from the rear:
a. Inward, upward, and around the wingtip.
b. Counterclockwise.
c. Outward, upward, and around the wingtip.
d. Outward, downward and around the wingtip.

c. Outward, upward, and around the wingtip.

Which statement is true concerning the wake turbulence produced by a large transport aircraft:
a. Wake turbulence behind a propeller-driven aircraft is negligible because jet engine thrust is a necessary factor in the formation of vortices.
b. Vortices can be avoided by flying 300 feet below and behind the flightpath of the generating aircraft.
c. The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft may be altered by extending the flaps or changing the speed.
d. Vortices can be avoided by flying downwind of, and below the flight path of the generating aircraft

c. The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft may be altered by extending the flaps or changing the speed.

What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large aeroplane that has just taken off:
a. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex.
b. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices.
c. A crosswind will move both vortices clear of the runway.
d. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex.

d. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex.

To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet aeroplane during takeoff, the pilot should:
a. Remain below the flightpath of the jet aeroplane.
b. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet aeroplane's flightpath.
c. Lift off at a point well past the jet aeroplane's flightpath.
d. Remain below and downwind of the jet aeroplane's flightpath.

b. Climb above and stay upwind of the jet aeroplane's flightpath.

What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time:
a. Light quartering headwind.
b. Light quartering tailwind.
c. Direct tailwind.
d. Strong, direct crosswind

b. Light quartering tailwind.

If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off:
a. Prior to the point where the jet touched down.
b. At the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway.
c. Before the point where the jet touched down and on the downwind edge of the runway.
d. Beyond the point where the jet touched down.

d. Beyond the point where the jet touched down.

The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and:
a. Increased thrust.
b. A decreased stall speed.
c. An increased stall speed.
d. An aircraft will always stall at the same indicated airspeed.

c. An increased stall speed.

Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the:
a. Differential pressure acting perpendicular to the chord of the wing. b. Force acting perpendicular to the relative wind.
c. Reduced pressure resulting from a laminar flow over the upper camber of an aerofoil, which acts perpendicular to the mean camber. d. Force acting parallel with the relative wind and in the opposite direction

b. Force acting perpendicular to the relative wind.

Which statement is true relative to changing angle of attack:
a. A decrease in angle of attack will increase pressure below the wing, and decrease drag.
b. An increase in angle of attack will decrease pressure below the wing, and increase drag.
c. An increase in angle of attack will increase drag.
d. An increase in angle of attack will decrease the lift coefficient.

c. An increase in angle of attack will increase drag.

The angle of attack of a wing directly controls the:
a. Angle of incidence of the wing.
b. Distribution of pressures acting on the wing.
c. Amount of airflow above and below the wing.
d. Dynamic pressure acting in the airflow.

b. Distribution of pressures acting on the wing.

In theory, if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and the airspeed is doubled, the lift produced at the higher speed will be: a. The same as at the lower speed.
b. Two times greater than at the lower speed.
c. Four times greater than at the lower speed.
d. One quarter as much.

c. Four times greater than at the lower speed.

An aircraft wing is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the:
a. Negative air pressure below and a vacuum above the wing's surface.
b. Vacuum below the wing's surface and greater air pressure above the wing's surface.
c. Higher air pressure below the wing's surface and lower air pressure above the wing's surface.
d. Higher pressure at the leading edge than at the trailing edge.

c. Higher air pressure below the wing's surface and lower air pressure above the wing's surface.

On a wing, the force of lift acts perpendicular to, and the force of drag acts parallel to the:
a. Camber line.
b. Longitudinal axis.
c. Chord line. d. Flightpath

d. Flightpath

Which statement is true, regarding the opposing forces acting on an aeroplane in steady‑state level flight:
a. Thrust is greater than drag and weight and lift are equal.
b. These forces are equal.
c. Thrust is greater than drag and lift is greater than weight.
d. Thrust is slightly greater than Lift, but the drag and weight are equal

b. These forces are equal.

An aeroplane leaving ground effect will:
a. Experience a reduction in ground friction and require a slight power reduction.
b. Require a lower angle of attack to maintain the same lift coefficient.
c. Experience a reduction in induced drag and require a smaller angle of attack
d. Experience an increase in induced drag and require more thrust.

d. Experience an increase in induced drag and require more thrust.

If the same angle of attack is maintained in ground effect as when out of ground effect, lift will:
a. Increase, and induced drag will increase.
b. Increase, and induced drag will decrease.
c. Decrease, and induced drag will increase.
d. Decrease and induced drag will decrease.

b. Increase, and induced drag will decrease.

Which is true regarding the force of lift in steady, unaccelerated flight:
a. There is a corresponding indicated airspeed required for every angle of attack to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude.
b. An aerofoil will always stall at the same indicated airspeed; therefore, an increase in weight will require an increase in speed to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude.
c. At lower airspeeds the angle of attack must be less to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude.
d. The lift force must be exactly equal to the drag force

a. There is a corresponding indicated airspeed required for every angle of attack to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude.

At a given Indicated Air Speed, what effect will an increase in air density have on lift and drag:
a. Lift will increase but drag will decrease.
b. Lift and drag will increase.
c. Lift and drag will decrease.
d. Lift and drag will remain the same

d. Lift and drag will remain the same

If the angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the wing will no longer produce sufficient lift to support the weight of the aircraft:
a. Unless the airspeed is greater than the normal stall speed.
b. Regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude.
c. Unless the pitch attitude is on or below the natural horizon.
d. In which case, the control column should be pulled-back immediately

b. Regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude.

Given That: Aircraft A. Wingspan: 51 m Average wing chord: 4 m Aircraft B. Wingspan: 48 m Average wing chord: 3.5 m Determine the correct aspect ratio and wing area.
a. Aircraft A has an aspect ratio of 13.7, and has a larger wing area than aircraft B.
b. Aircraft B has an aspect ratio of 13.7, and has a smaller wing area than aircraft A.
c. Aircraft B has an aspect ratio of 12.75, and has a smaller wing area than aircraft A.
d. Aircraft A has an aspect ratio of 12.75, and has a smaller wing area than aircraft B.

b. Aircraft B has an aspect ratio of 13.7, and has a smaller wing area than aircraft A.

Aspect ratio of the wing is defined as the ratio of the:
a. Wingspan to the wing root.
b. Square of the chord to the wing span.
c. Wing span to the average chord.
d. Square of the wing area to the span

c. Wing span to the average chord.

What changes to aircraft control must be made to maintain altitude while the airspeed is being decreased:
a. Increase the angle of attack to compensate for the decreasing dynamic pressure.
b. Maintain a constant angle of attack until the desired airspeed is reached, then increase the angle of attack.
c. Increase angle of attack to produce more lift than weight.
d. Decrease the angle of attack to compensate for the decrease in drag

a. Increase the angle of attack to compensate for the decreasing dynamic pressure.

Take-off from an airfield with a low density altitude will result in:
a. a longer take-off run.
b. a higher than standard IAS before lift off.
c. a higher TAS for the same lift off IAS.
d. a shorter take off run because of the lower TAS required for the same IAS

d. a shorter take off run because of the lower TAS required for the same IAS

What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D?

a. Drag increases because of increased induced drag.
b. Drag decreases because of lower induced drag.
c. Drag increases because of increased parasite drag.
d. Drag decreases because of lower parasite drag.

a. Drag increases because of increased induced drag.

By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's:
a. lift and airspeed, but not drag.
b. lift, gross weight, and drag.
c. lift, airspeed, and drag.
d. lift and drag, but not airspeed.

c. lift, airspeed, and drag.

What is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased?
a. Parasite drag increases more than induced drag.
b. Induced drag increases more than parasite drag.
c. Both parasite and induced drag are equally increased.
d. Both parasite and induced drag are equally decreased.

b. Induced drag increases more than parasite drag.

In theory, if the airspeed of an airplane is doubled while in level flight, parasite drag will become:
a. twice as great.
b. half as great.
c. four times greater.
d. one quarter as much.

c. four times greater.

As airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum lift/drag ratio, total drag of an aeroplane:
a. decreases because of lower parasite drag.
b. increases because of increased parasite drag.
c. increases because of increased induced drag.
d. decreases because of lower induced drag.

c. increases because of increased induced drag

At the airspeed represented by point B, in steady flight, the airplane will
a. have its maximum L/D ratio.
b. have its minimum L/D ratio.
c. be developing its maximum coefficient of lift.
d. be developing its minimum coefficient of drag

a. have its maximum L/D ratio.

Which statement is true relative to changing angle of attack?
a. A decrease in angle of attack will increase pressure below the wing, and decrease drag.
b. An increase in angle of attack will decrease pressure below the wing, and increase drag.
c. An increase in angle of attack will increase drag.
d. A decrease in angle of attack will decrease pressure below the wing and increase drag.

c. An increase in angle of attack will increase drag.

On a wing, the force of lift acts perpendicular to, and the force of drag acts parallel to the:
a. flightpath.
b. longitudinal axis.
c. chord line.
d. longitudinal datum

a. flightpath.

That portion of the aircraft's total drag created by the production of lift is called:
a. induced drag, and is greatly affected by changes in airspeed.
b. induced drag, and is not affected by changes in airspeed.
c. parasite drag, and is greatly affected by changes in airspeed.
d. parasite drag, which is inversely proportional to the square of the airspeed

a. induced drag, and is greatly affected by changes in airspeed.

The best L/D ratio of an aircraft occurs when parasite drag is:
a. a minimum.
b. less than induced drag.
c. greater than induced drag.
d. equal to induced drag.

d. equal to induced drag.

An aircraft has a L/D ratio of 15:1 at 50 kts in calm air. What would the L/D ratio be with a direct headwind of 25 kts?
a. 30 : 1
b. 15 : 1
c. 25 : 1
d. 7.5 : 1

b. 15 : 1

Which is true regarding aerodynamic drag?
a. Induced drag is a by‑product of lift and is greatly affected by changes in airspeed.
b. All aerodynamic drag is created entirely by the production of lift.
c. Induced drag is created entirely by air resistance.
d. Parasite drag is a by-product of lift

a. Induced drag is a by‑product of lift and is greatly affected by changes in airspeed.

At a given True Air Speed, what effect will increased air density have on the lift and drag of an aircraft?
a. Lift will increase but drag will decrease.
b. Lift and drag will increase.
c. Lift and drag will decrease.
d. Lift and drag will remain the same.

b. Lift and drag will increase.

If the Indicated Air Speed of an aircraft is increased from 50 kts to 100 kts, parasite drag will be:
a. four times greater.
b. six times greater.
c. two times greater.
d. one quarter as much.

a. four times greater.

If the Indicated Air Speed of an aircraft is decreased from 100 kts to 50 kts, induced drag will be:
a. two times greater.
b. four times greater.
c. half as much.
d. one quarter as much.

b. four times greater.

The best L/D ratio of an aircraft in a given configuration is a value that:
a. varies with Indicated Air Speed.
b. varies depending upon the weight being carried.
c. varies with air density.
d. remains constant regardless of Indicated Air Speed changes.

d. remains constant regardless of Indicated Air Speed changes.

The tendency of an aircraft to develop forces which restore it to its original condition, when disturbed from a condition of steady flight, is known as:
a. manoeuvrability.
b. controllability.
c. stability.
d. instability.

c. stability.

As Indicated Air Speed increases in level flight, the total drag of an aircraft becomes greater than the total drag produced at the maximum lift/drag speed because of the
a. decrease in induced drag only.
b. increase in induced drag.
c. increase in parasite drag.
d. decrease in parasite drag only.

c. increase in parasite drag.

The resistance, or skin friction, due to the viscosity of the air as it passes along the surface of a wing is a type of:
a. induced drag.
b. form drag.
c. parasite drag.
d. interference drag.

c. parasite drag.