1/122
Looks like no tags are added yet.
Name | Mastery | Learn | Test | Matching | Spaced | Call with Kai |
|---|
No study sessions yet.
where is the tricuspid valve
between RA and RV
where is the mitral valve
between the LA and the LV
what is stenosis
calcification and narrowing of the valve (decreases ability to push blood forward), primarily a disease of aging
what is regurgitation
blood flowing backwards through the valves
what is aortic stenosis?
most common valvular disease, often occurs as patients age, decreases cardiac output
decreased cardiac output aortic stenosis can cause:
chest pain, fatigue, shortness of breath, and syncope
Treatment for aortic stenosis
minimal drug therapy, if procedural/surgical correct of valve, antithrombotic therapy is likely necessary
Types of aortic valve replacements
surgical aortic valve replacement (SAVR) and transcatheter aortic valve replacement (TAVR)
what is SAVR
requires open heart surgery (invasive) and can replace with a mechanical or bioprosthetic valve
what is TAVR
percutaneous access (similar to a catheterization procedure, less invasive than surgical replacement), only bioprosthetic valve
types of aortic valves:
mechanical valve and bioprosthetic
what is a mechanical valve
lasts 20-30 years; risk of thromboembolism is higher; requires lifelong anticoagulation with warfarin (INR goal 2-3)
what is a bioprosthetic valve
lasts ~10 years; risk of thromboembolism is lower; requires ~3 months of anticoagulation or antiplatelet therapy
what is mitral regurgitation?
most common mitral valve disease that is often due to heart failure (increase blood volume and pressure in left ventricle pushes blood backwards from the left ventricle to the left atrium)
how can we often treat mitral valve disease
can often treat this with adequate diuresis
does mitral valve disease require a valve replacement
it may require a valve replacement if too severe
what is mitral stenosis
most commonly from rheumatic fever (incidence is decreasing); may require mitral valve replacement if too severe
which valve is at higher risk for clotting?
the mitral valve (compared to the aortic valve)
The mitral valve has mainly ______________ blood flow from left atrium to left ventricle
passive/low pressure
the aortic valve has mainly ______________ pressure blood flow from left ventricle to aorta (left ventricle creates your blood pressure)
high
why does the mitral valve have an increase clot risk compared to the aortic valve?
the mitral valve has passive blood flow whereas the aortic valve has forceful/high pressure blood flow
what does HIT stand for
heparin induced thrombocytopenia
what is HIT
a prothrombotic disorder associated with unfractionated heparin (UFH) or low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)
epidemiology of HIT
UFH - 5% of patients and LMWH - 0.5-1% of patients
Types of HIT
HIT and HITT
difference between HIT and HITT
HIT is ‘isolated HIT’ where labs are positive but the patient doesn’t have a clot. HITT is HIT complicated by thrombosis
risk factors for HIT
source of heparin (bovine increased risk over porcine), type of heparin used (UFH higher risk than LMWHH), patient population, longer duration of exposure, and IV administration has higher risk than SQ
which patient population has a higher risk for HIT
surgical patients have a higher risk than medical and obstetric patients
which test is used to assess the likelihood of HIT?
4T’s Pretest Score
how many points on the 4T’s Pretest score indicate low probability for HIT?
<= 3 points
how many points on the 4T’s Pretest score indicate intermediate probability for HIT?
4-5 points
how many points on the 4T’s Pretest score indicate high probability for HIT?
6-8
How is HIT diagnosed?
Once a patient receiving heparin or LMWH has platelet decreasing, a pretest probability score is calculated (4T score or HEP score). If the score is not low, stop all heparin, consider alternative anticoagulant, and send for testing.
Which tests are recommended for HIT after patient has a high pre-test probability score?
PF 4 IgG ELISA Immunoassay and Serotonin Release Assay (SRA)
what is PF 4 IgG ELISA Immunoassay?
it is not diagnostic; detects heparin-dependent IgG antibody; has potential for false positives
what is Serotonin Release Assay?
a validation test and detects actual pathologic response.
In patients with acute HIT or HITT, what is the guideline recommendation for treatment?
discontinuation of heparin and initiation of a non-heparin anticoagulant
What are non-heparin anticoagulant options?
argatroban, bivalirudin, fondaparinux, or a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC)
DOAC selection for HIT or HITT?
rivaroxaban has the most evidence, but any can be used
rivaroxaban dosing for HIT
15 mg BID until platelet count recovery (platelet count > 150 k), then 20 mg daily
rivaroxaban dosing for HITT
15 mg twice daily for three weeks then 20 mg daily.
Alternative IV anticoagulants after stopping heparin during HIT/HITT
argatroban and bivalirudin
MOA for argatroban and bivalirudin
direct thrombin inhibitors
half-life of argatroban
39-51 minutes
half-life of bivalirudin
10-24 minutes
renal adjustments for argatroban
since ~15% is renally eliminated, will likely need lower infusion rate; not dialyzable
renal adjustments for bivalirubin
~15% is renally eliminated, so it requires initial infusion rate decrease
monitoring for argatroban and bivalirudin
aPTT 1.5-3x ULN; monitor hemoglobin, hematocrit, and platelets
Pearls for argatroban
~85% hepatobiliary elimination and will elevate INR
Pearls for bivalirudin
~85% proteolytic elimination and will elevate INR
when to transition from DTI to warfarin
after platelets >= 150,000
T/F: argatroban and bivalirudin increase INR, but this is not necessarily a reflection of the degree of anticoagulation
True
Which effects INR more, argatroban or bivalirudin?
Argatroban
First step in transitioning from agatroban or bivalirudin to warfarin
administer 5 doses of warfarin
After giving 5 doses of warfarin, if the INR is > 4 what should be done to the argatroban dose?
consider stopping it!
After giving 5 doses of warfarin, if the INR is > 3 what should be done to the bivalirudin dose?
consider stopping
when to recheck PTT/INR after the 5 doses of warfarin and first INR check?
2-4 hours
for patients swapping from DTI to warfarin, if the PTT baseline and INR are in range after follow up (2-4 hrs later) what should be done to the infusion?
leave the drip off
for patients swapping from DTI to warfarin, if the PTT baseline and INR are below range after follow up (2-4 hrs later) what should be done to the infusion?
restart drip
transition from DTI to DOAC?
stop the DTI and start the DOAC !!
duration of therapy for HIT
30 days
duration of therapy for HITT
3 months
when do we reverse anticoagulation
generally, only reverse anticoagulation for life-threatening bleeds or a BIG or URGENT surgery/procedure that requires reversal
T/F: it is preferred to reverse anticoagulation instead of doing a wash-out period for a few days (3-5 half-lives)
False
for renally eliminated anticoagulants, is the hold time longer in patients with poor renal function?
yes, it may be longer
if we reverse anticoagulation, what state do we put the patient in?
a prothrombotic state
what should be done with anticoagulants if the patient has minor or non life-threatening bleeding?
supportive measures, and may hold anticoagulant until hemostasis is achieved
specific reversal agent for warfarin
Vitamin K (Phytonadione)
non-specific reversal agent for warfarin
Fresh frozen plasma; prothrombin complex concentrate
specific reversal agent for apixaban, rivaroxaban, and edoxaban
Andexanet Alfa (Andexxa)
non-specific reversal agent for apixaban, rivaroxaban, and edoxaban
Prothrombin complex concentrate
specific reversal agent for dabigatran
Idarucizumab
non-specific reversal agent for dabigatran
Activated prothrombin complex concentrate
specific reversal agent for heparin and LMWH
Protamine
reversal of factor Xa inhibitors
Andexanet Alfa (if available) OR 4-factor PCC
reversal of dabigatran
Idarucizumab (if available) OR activated PCC
reversal of warfarin
4-factor PCC and IV vitamin K
Class of Andexanet Alfa
recombinant modified human factor Xa protein binding and sequestering of factor Xa inhibitor
FDA indication for Andexanet Alfa
apixaban and rivaroxaban reversal
off-label indications of Andexanet Alfa
edoxaban reversal
onset for andexanet alfa
2 minutes
duration for Andexanet alfa
2 hours
class of 4-factor PCC (Kcentra, Belfaxar)
coagulation factors II, VII, IX, and X, and anticoagulants protein C and S
FDA indication for 4-factor PCC
life-threatening bleeding on warfarin
off-label indication for 4-factor PCC
life-threatening bleeding on factor Xa inhibitors
onset for 4-factor PCC
10 minutes
duration for 4-factor PCC
8 hours
class for Idarucizumab (Praxbind)
humanized monoclonal antibody fragment that binds to dabigatran and neutralizes effects
FDA indications for Idarucizumab (Praxbind)
dabigatran reversal
onset for Idarucizumab (Praxbind)
5 minutes
duration for Idarucizumab (Praxbind)
12-24 hours
class for Activated PCC (Feiba)
non activated factors II, IX, X, and activated VII
FDA indications for Activated PCC (Feiba)
bleeding with hemophilia A or B
off-label indications for for Activated PCC (Feiba)
life-threatening bleeding on dabigatran
onset for Activated PCC (Feiba)
30 minutes
duration for Activated PCC (Feiba)
12 hours
class of vitamin K (Phytonadione)
promotes liver synthesis of factors II, IV, IX, and X
FDA indication of vitamin K (Phytonadione)
reversal of warfarin
off-label indication of vitamin K (Phytonadione)
liver disease
onset of vitamin K (Phytonadione)
10-12 hours