Air Traffic Control Midterm

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79 Terms

1
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What was the initial driving force for the development of commercial aviation

airmail

2
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The airmail act of 1925 authorized?

The postmaster general to contract with private corporations to carry airmail

3
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The Air Commerce Act of 1926 was the direct result of

The Morrow Report

4
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One of the major provisions of the creation of the Bureau of Air Commerce of 1934 was

The Federal requirement for pilots to be licensed

5
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The Civil Aeronautics Act of 1938 divided the functions of the Civil Aeronautics Authority into how many groups?

3

6
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The Airline Deregulation Act of 1978 allowed?

The airlines to determine their own fares and route structures

7
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The driving force behind the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 was?

A series of mid-air collisions

8
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In order, the three priorities of flights are:

Aviate, Navigate, Communicate

9
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The first air traffic controller was Archie W. League. He first worked at which of the following airports?

St. Louis

10
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The first Air Traffic Control Units were developed by?

several major airlines

11
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Which of the following are recommendations of the Special Committee 3 report?

All of the above

12
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While Taxiing for takeoff, you notice that the tower is flashing a white light at you. What does this mean?

Return to starting points on airports

13
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The designation given to certain airspace where high volumes of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity exists is designated as a ?

Alert area

14
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Positive controlled airspace requires ATC facilities to?

Actively separate both VFR and IFR traffic

15
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Class B airspace is located ?

Only around the largest and busiest airports

16
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Low altitude VOR airways, are designed by preceding their numbers by a specific letter. What letter is that?

V

17
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VFR flight is not permitted in?

Class A airspace

18
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The FAA, in accordance with the international Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), has reclassified all airspace in the United States to comply with international designations. The class of airspace which is designated as uncontrolled airspace is?

Class G

19
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VFR flight in uncontrolled airspace

Requires the pilot to provide his/her own separation from other aircraft

20
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What are the inflight weather requirements for VFR flight in class B airspace

3 miles visibility and clear of clouds

21
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What are the visibility and cloud clearance requirements for VFR flight in class G airspace below 1200 feet AGL during daylight operations?

1 mile, clear of clouds

22
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What is the entry requirement for VFR aircraft into Class B airspace?

VFR aircraft must have an ATC clearance to enter

23
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When a MOA is active:

Only b and c are true

24
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High altitude VOR airways, are designated by preceding their numbers by a specific letter. That letter is?

J

25
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VFR flight in a Restricted Area

Both b and c

26
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Controlled Firing Areas are shown on aeronautical charts by:

CFAs are not charted

27
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A warning area is similar to a Restricted Area except:

Since it is off shore in international airspace, flight through the area cannot legally be restricted

28
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A pilot needs to accurately know the visibility on the airport when executing any instrument approach. His/her ability to fly the aircraft to a safe landing requires the pilot to be able to see a runway environment. The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) has developed equipment to monitor and report the runway visibility. The equipment is known as:

Transmissometer

29
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What information does a TACAN provide that VOR does not?

DME

30
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You are flying at 12,000 ft. AGL. When you pass directly over a VORTAC, what will your DME indication be?

2

31
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Which of the following is a precision approach?

ILS

32
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You are flying an ILS approach. What type of visibility will give you the best measurement of the visibility that you will encounter?

RVR

33
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NDBs operate on which radio band?

AM

34
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What is the disadvantage of using AM radio band for aviation navigation

The signal can be overpowered by weather phenomena

35
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Development of Doppler VOR was an attempt to:

Extend the VOR signal into the high altitude structure

36
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How many satellite signals must be received for a valid GPS position?

4

37
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ILSs combine two types of signals to make a precision approach. These signals are

Localize and glide slope

38
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Runway lighting helps pilots transition from instrument to visual conditions for landings. A signal bar lighting system that provides glide slope information is called a:

PAPI

39
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If your CDI is centered with a FROM indication and 210 is dialed in, this means you are __ of the station

southwest

40
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If your CDI is centered with a TO indication and 130 is dialed in, this means you are ___ of the station

northwest

41
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Which radio frequency band is used for long range ATC communication

HF

42
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When trying to contact the Cleveland Flight Service Station by radio, you should call it:

Cleveland Radio

43
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If you lose any navigation equipment on your aircraft, you should:

Notify ATC of the loss

44
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In order, what are the four Ws of the general radio call format?

Who are you calling, Who are you, Where are you, What do you want

45
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You are approaching a non-controlled airfield for landing. What is an appropriate time for your first transmission

10 miles from the field

46
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Using the phonetic alphabet, what is the appropriate word to represent T?

Tango

47
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Using the phonetic alphabet, what is the appropriate word to represent Z?

Zulu

48
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It is never permissible to shorten one’s call sign

false

49
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Within the ARTCC, the controller whose job it is to assist the other controllers and pass on pertinent information to controllers working in other sectors is known as the

Flight Data Controller

50
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The basic functions of an air route traffic control center (ARTCC) is to separate traffic

between airports

51
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Which of the following is not an Air defense Identification zone (ADIZ)

Northern Boarder Domestic ADIZ

52
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The transfer of separation responsibility between two ARTCC and a smaller facility (such as an approach control) is described by

A letter of agreement

53
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When a handoff occurs, the receiving controller can issue new heading and altitudes to the aircraft even though the aircraft has not yet entered their sector

false

54
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On precision runways, the runway edge lights are _______ until 2000 from the edge where they turn _______.

white/amber

55
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Aircraft A is departing an airport.  Aircraft B will depart in front of A from an intersecting runway.  Before the tower controller clears A for its take off, B must:

either a or b

56
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You are taxiing and see a black sign with a yellow “B” on it.  This indicates:

You are on taxiway B

57
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Runways are marked in

White paint

58
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After your initial call to a Tower, the controller will always have you report:

Where ever the traffic flow and your position makes most convenient for the controller

59
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During daylight operations, the tower controller must space an arriving Category I aircraft so that it does not cross the landing threshold until the preceding landing Category I aircraft:

Both are true

60
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Which person in the control tower is responsible for preparing the ATIS?

Flight Data Controller

61
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You take off and wish to enter the airport pattern.  After you make your first 90-degree turn, you are on:

Crosswind Leg

62
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If an aircraft lands on your runway, the tower controller must wait until it clears or is 6,000 ft. down the runway (Category III) before he can clear you for take-off.

false

63
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The worst wake turbulence is always created by an aircraft that:

Heavy, slow and clean

64
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The airplane taking off in front of you doesn’t start making wingtip vortices until

Its wings start to produce lift (nose wheel leaves the ground)

65
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Wake turbulence:

Sinks at approximately 500 ft./min and breaks up approximately 1,000 ft. below the aircraft’s cruising altitude

66
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Yellow, alternating flashing lights on both sides of the pavement indicate:

That there is a hold line for a runway there

67
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Never land on pavement that is illuminated by blue lights because:

You’re landing on a taxiway

68
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On a calm day, as they approach the ground, wingtip vortices will tend to:

Move apart at about 5 knots

69
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Which person in the tower is responsible for preventing runway incursions?

Ground Controller

70
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You are flying in the traffic pattern parallel to the runway but opposite the landing direction.  You are said to be on:

Downwind Leg

71
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You are taxiing and see a red sign with a white “ILS” on it.  This indicates:

It indicates ILS critical area hold position

72
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Taxiways are marked in:

Yellow Paint

73
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Which of the following is a valid clearance from the tower?

All are valid clearances

74
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For the purpose of runway separation, a Category I aircraft is a:

Lightweight, single-engine, propeller-driven personal aircraft

75
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For the purpose of runway separation, a Category II aircraft is a:

Lightweight, twin engine, propeller-driven aircraft weighing 12,500 or less

76
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For the purpose of runway separation, a Category III aircraft is a:

Any aircraft not included in Category I or II

77
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Pilots can find the Available Landing Distance for Land and Hold Short Operations by:

Asking the tower controller, checking the special notice section of the Airport Facility Directory

78
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The calm wind runway should be used when the wind is:

less than 5 knots

79
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An aircraft that is following a much larger aircraft on final should:

Plan to stay higher than the large aircraft on final and land past its touch down point

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