Pathophysiology & Endocrine Review

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Question-and-answer flashcards covering liver pathology, endocrine feedback loops, hormone actions, and related disorders.

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43 Terms

1
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What pathological changes characterize cirrhosis?

Diffuse hepatic fibrosis with regenerative nodules that distort normal liver architecture and function.

2
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Name two common chronic injuries that can lead to cirrhosis.

Chronic viral hepatitis (e.g., B or C) and chronic alcohol use (fatty liver disease is another).

3
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Which liver cells are activated to produce collagen in cirrhosis?

Hepatic stellate (Ito) cells.

4
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How does cirrhosis produce portal hypertension?

Fibrous tissue disrupts hepatic sinusoids, increasing resistance to portal venous blood flow.

5
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Why do patients with cirrhosis often develop ascites and peripheral edema?

Reduced hepatic protein synthesis lowers serum albumin, decreasing plasma oncotic pressure and allowing fluid to accumulate.

6
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What coagulation problem is common in cirrhosis?

Bleeding tendencies due to decreased synthesis of clotting factors.

7
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Elevated ammonia in cirrhosis can lead to which neurologic complication?

Hepatic encephalopathy.

8
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What causes splenomegaly and esophageal varices in cirrhosis?

Increased portal vein pressure from portal hypertension.

9
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What is the most common cause of acute cholecystitis?

A gallstone obstructing the cystic duct.

10
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How does a gallstone obstruction lead to inflammation in cholecystitis?

Trapped bile causes gallbladder distention and bile stasis, promoting bacterial growth and wall inflammation.

11
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Which physical-exam sign is classically positive in cholecystitis?

Murphy’s sign (inspiratory arrest with right upper-quadrant palpation).

12
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If untreated, cholecystitis may progress to which life-threatening complication?

Gallbladder rupture causing peritonitis.

13
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Give three major etiologic categories for hepatitis.

Viral infection (A, B, C, D, E), alcohol abuse, and drug/toxin or autoimmune injury.

14
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Which liver enzymes are typically elevated in acute hepatitis?

Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST).

15
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Chronic untreated hepatitis can progress to what advanced liver condition?

Cirrhosis (fibrosis with regenerative nodules).

16
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Accumulation of what pigment causes jaundice?

Bilirubin.

17
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In pre-hepatic jaundice, which form of bilirubin predominates in blood?

Unconjugated (indirect) bilirubin.

18
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Give one common post-hepatic (obstructive) cause of jaundice.

Choledocholithiasis (common bile-duct gallstone) or pancreatic tumor obstructing the duct.

19
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Which hypothalamic hormone triggers release of FSH and LH?

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH).

20
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What ovarian event is precipitated by the LH surge?

Ovulation.

21
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During the luteal phase, which two hormones exert negative feedback on GnRH, FSH, and LH?

Estrogen and progesterone produced by the corpus luteum.

22
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In males, LH acts on which testicular cells to produce testosterone?

Leydig cells.

23
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Which Sertoli-cell hormone selectively inhibits FSH secretion?

Inhibin.

24
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List, in order, the three principal hormones of the HPA axis.

CRH (corticotropin-releasing hormone) → ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) → cortisol.

25
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High cortisol levels produce what type of feedback on CRH and ACTH?

Negative feedback inhibition.

26
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Hyperpigmentation in Addison disease results from excess secretion of which pituitary hormone?

ACTH, which also stimulates melanocytes via MSH effect.

27
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Name two classic physical features of Cushing syndrome.

Central (truncal) obesity with “moon face” and “buffalo hump.”

28
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Excess growth hormone before epiphyseal plate closure causes which disorder?

Gigantism.

29
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Which mediator primarily drives the tissue overgrowth seen in acromegaly?

Insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1) produced by the liver in response to GH.

30
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Severe, long-standing untreated hypothyroidism in adults is called what?

Myxedema.

31
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From where is antidiuretic hormone (ADH) released into the bloodstream?

Posterior pituitary (after being produced in the hypothalamus).

32
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To conserve water, ADH binds to which renal receptors?

V2 receptors on collecting-duct cells, inserting aquaporin-2 channels.

33
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How does ADH affect urine volume and concentration?

Decreases urine volume and makes urine more concentrated.

34
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Which hormone operates by positive feedback to intensify uterine contractions during labor?

Oxytocin.

35
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Name the two primary physiologic actions of oxytocin.

Stimulates uterine contractions during labor and milk ejection (“let-down”) during breastfeeding.

36
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Define enterohepatic circulation.

Recycling of bile salts (and some drugs/bilirubin derivatives) from intestine → portal blood → liver for reuse.

37
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Intestinal bacteria convert conjugated bilirubin into which colorless compound?

Urobilinogen.

38
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Oxidation of residual urobilinogen in the colon yields which pigment that colors stool brown?

Stercobilin.

39
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Elevated urine urobilinogen can indicate which two broad disease categories?

Increased hemolysis or impaired hepatic uptake/conjugation (e.g., hepatitis).

40
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Pheochromocytoma arises from which part of the adrenal gland?

Adrenal medulla (chromaffin cells).

41
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Which two catecholamines are overproduced in pheochromocytoma?

Epinephrine and norepinephrine.

42
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Why must alpha-blockers be administered before beta-blockers in pheochromocytoma treatment?

Unopposed alpha-adrenergic stimulation after isolated beta-blockade can provoke severe hypertensive crisis.

43
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List three classic cardiovascular or autonomic symptoms of pheochromocytoma.

Paroxysmal hypertension, tachycardia/palpitations, and profuse sweating with pallor.