CA Pharma Prelim

1. Pharmacology is the study of:
   A. Body structures
   B. Biological effects of chemicals
   C. Psychological responses
   D. Pathology of disease

B. Biological effects of chemicals

2. Pharmacodynamics is defined as:
   A. What the body does to the drug
   B. Actions of the drug on the body
   C. Liberation and absorption of drugs
   D. Distribution and excretion of drugs

B. Actions of the drug on the body

3. Pharmacokinetics is defined as:
   A. What the body does to the drug
   B. What the drug does to the body
   C. Mechanism of enzyme inhibition
   D. Receptor stimulation

A. What the body does to the drug

4. Which of the following is NOT part of pharmacokinetics?
   A. Absorption
   B. Distribution
   C. Metabolism
   D. Stimulation

D. Stimulation

5. A drug that activates a receptor is called:
   A. Antagonist
   B. Agonist
   C. Inhibitor
   D. Modulator

B. Agonist

6. A drug that binds to a receptor and blocks its effect is a:
   A. Agonist
   B. Antagonist
   C. Sympathomimetic
   D. Potentiator

B. Antagonist

7. A competitive antagonist:
   A. Binds to same receptor as agonist
   B. Binds to different receptor
   C. Enhances agonist effect
   D. Is irreversible

A. Binds to same receptor as agonist

8. Example of a drug that replaces a missing substance:
   A. Epinephrine
   B. Insulin
   C. Beta-blockers
   D. Antacids

B. Insulin

9. Epinephrine primarily acts by:
   A. Increasing cell activity
   B. Depressing cellular activity
   C. Replacing missing hormones
   D. Blocking receptors

A. Increasing cell activity

10. Beta-blockers act by:
    A. Stimulating beta receptors
    B. Depressing cellular activity
    C. Replacing neurotransmitters
    D. Blocking enzyme activity

B. Depressing cellular activity

11. The functional unit of the nervous system is:
    A. Synapse
    B. Axon
    C. Neuron
    D. Myelin

C. Neuron

12. Neurotransmitter responsible for muscle contraction and memory:
    A. Dopamine
    B. Serotonin
    C. Acetylcholine
    D. GABA

C. Acetylcholine

13. Neurotransmitter involved in motivation, arousal, and depression prevention:
    A. Dopamine
    B. Serotonin
    C. Norepinephrine
    D. Acetylcholine

B. Serotonin

14. Main neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system is:
    A. Dopamine
    B. Acetylcholine
    C. Norepinephrine
    D. GABA

C. Norepinephrine

15. The parasympathetic nervous system uses which neurotransmitter?
    A. Dopamine
    B. Serotonin
    C. Acetylcholine
    D. Epinephrine

C. Acetylcholine

16. Dopamine is primarily responsible for:
    A. Motor and cognition
    B. Sleep regulation
    C. Inhibition of impulses
    D. Bronchodilation

A. Motor and cognition

17. GABA is the major:
    A. Excitatory neurotransmitter
    B. Inhibitory neurotransmitter
    C. Hormone for digestion
    D. Enzyme regulator

B. Inhibitory neurotransmitter

18. Sympathetic stimulation causes:
    A. Bronchoconstriction, miosis
    B. Bronchodilation, mydriasis
    C. Decreased HR, increased digestion
    D. Increased urine output

B. Bronchodilation, mydriasis

19. Parasympathetic stimulation causes:
    A. Tachycardia
    B. Constipation
    C. Miosis and urination
    D. Hyperglycemia

C. Miosis and urination

20. “Mimetic” drugs:
    A. Block receptors
    B. Stimulate receptors
    C. Destroy neurotransmitters
    D. Replace missing hormones

B. Stimulate receptors

21. Epinephrine is used for:
    A. Hypertension only
    B. CPR, shock, anaphylaxis
    C. Asthma maintenance
    D. Pain management

B. CPR, shock, anaphylaxis

22. Dopamine is useful in:
    A. Hypertension
    B. CHF and cardiogenic shock
    C. Asthma attack
    D. Seizure

B. CHF and cardiogenic shock

23. Dobutamine is primarily a:
    A. Beta-2 agonist
    B. Beta-1 agonist
    C. Alpha agonist
    D. Cholinergic agonist

B. Beta-1 agonist

24. Albuterol (Salbutamol) acts on:
    A. Alpha-1
    B. Beta-1
    C. Beta-2
    D. Alpha-2

C. Beta-2

25. Terbutaline is often used to:
    A. Relieve constipation
    B. Stop preterm labor
    C. Treat hypertension
    D. Stimulate urination

B. Stop preterm labor

26. Norepinephrine is indicated for:
    A. Cardiac arrest and shock
    B. Allergic rhinitis
    C. Mild asthma
    D. Epilepsy

A. Cardiac arrest and shock

27. Midodrine is used to treat:
    A. Orthostatic hypotension
    B. Severe asthma
    C. Myasthenia gravis
    D. Diabetes

A. Orthostatic hypotension

28. Phenylephrine is used as:
    A. Antipyretic
    B. Nasal decongestant and vasopressor
    C. Diuretic
    D. Anticoagulant

B. Nasal decongestant and vasopressor

29. Formoterol and Salmeterol are classified as:
    A. SABAs
    B. LABAs
    C. Beta-1 antagonists
    D. Cholinergic agonists

B. LABAs

30. A patient with asthma in acute distress should receive:
    A. Salmeterol
    B. Formoterol
    C. Albuterol
    D. Cromolyn sodium

C. Albuterol

31. Adrenergic agonists mimic which system?
    A. Parasympathetic
    B. Sympathetic
    C. CNS inhibitory
    D. Endocrine

B. Sympathetic

32. Side effect of beta-2 agonists like albuterol:
    A. Bradycardia
    B. Tremors and palpitations
    C. Constipation
    D. Drowsiness

B. Tremors and palpitations

33. Epinephrine causes which effect on pupils?
    A. Constriction (miosis)
    B. Dilation (mydriasis)
    C. No change
    D. Irregular reaction

B. Dilation (mydriasis)

34. Which drug is best for anaphylactic shock?
    A. Atropine
    B. Epinephrine
    C. Propranolol
    D. Clonidine

B. Epinephrine

35. Adrenergic agonists acting on beta-2 receptors result in:
    A. Bronchoconstriction
    B. Bronchodilation
    C. Hypoglycemia
    D. Bradycardia

B. Bronchodilation

Alright 👍 Let’s finish the full 100 MCQs from your Pharmacology reviewer. This batch continues from Q36 to Q100.

$36. Adrenergic antagonists are also called:
A. Sympathomimetics
B. Sympatholytics
C. Parasympathomimetics
D. Parasympatholytics

B. Sympatholytics

37. Carvedilol and labetalol block:
    A. Only alpha receptors
    B. Only beta receptors
    C. Both alpha and beta receptors
    D. Muscarinic receptors

C. Both alpha and beta receptors

38. Prazosin is classified as:
    A. Alpha-1 antagonist
    B. Alpha-2 antagonist
    C. Beta-1 antagonist
    D. Beta-2 antagonist

A. Alpha-1 antagonist

39. Clinical use of prazosin includes:
    A. Hypertension
    B. Asthma
    C. Seizure
    D. Constipation

A. Hypertension

40. Tamsulosin is used in:
    A. Glaucoma
    B. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
    C. Asthma
    D. Hypertension only

B. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

41. Phentolamine is the drug of choice for:
    A. Status asthmaticus
    B. Hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma
    C. Hypotension
    D. Anaphylaxis

B. Hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma

42. Beta blockers ending in “-olol” act by:
    A. Stimulating beta receptors
    B. Blocking beta receptors
    C. Stimulating alpha receptors
    D. Blocking muscarinic receptors

B. Blocking beta receptors

43. Non-selective beta blockers should be avoided in:
    A. Patients with constipation
    B. Patients with asthma or COPD
    C. Patients with hypertension
    D. Patients with BPH

B. Patients with asthma or COPD

44. Propranolol is a:
    A. Beta-1 selective blocker
    B. Non-selective beta blocker
    C. Alpha-1 blocker
    D. Alpha-2 blocker

B. Non-selective beta blocker

45. Metoprolol and Atenolol are preferred in hypertensive patients with asthma because they are:
    A. Non-selective beta blockers
    B. Alpha-1 antagonists
    C. Beta-1 selective blockers
    D. Parasympatholytics

C. Beta-1 selective blockers

46. Common side effect of beta blockers:
    A. Tachycardia
    B. Bronchoconstriction
    C. Constipation
    D. Tremors

B. Bronchoconstriction

47. A nurse is monitoring a diabetic patient on propranolol. The priority concern is:
    A. Hypoglycemia may be masked
    B. Hyperglycemia may worsen
    C. Constipation may develop
    D. Polyuria will increase

A. Hypoglycemia may be masked

48. Timolol is commonly used for:
    A. Hypertension
    B. Glaucoma
    C. Epilepsy
    D. CHF

B. Glaucoma

49. A hypertensive pregnant woman is prescribed labetalol. This drug acts as:
    A. Alpha agonist
    B. Alpha and beta blocker
    C. Beta agonist
    D. Muscarinic antagonist

B. Alpha and beta blocker

50. Sudden withdrawal of beta blockers may cause:
    A. Severe hypotension
    B. Rebound hypertension and tachycardia
    C. Bronchodilation
    D. CNS depression

B. Rebound hypertension and tachycardia

51. Drugs that mimic the parasympathetic system are called:
    A. Adrenergic agonists
    B. Adrenergic antagonists
    C. Cholinergic agonists
    D. Beta agonists

C. Cholinergic agonists

52. Pyridostigmine is the first-line drug for:
    A. Parkinson’s disease
    B. Myasthenia gravis
    C. Asthma
    D. Glaucoma

B. Myasthenia gravis

53. Neostigmine is classified as:
    A. Antimuscarinic
    B. Anticholinesterase
    C. Adrenergic agonist
    D. Sympatholytic

B. Anticholinesterase

54. Atropine is the antidote for:
    A. Beta blocker toxicity
    B. Cholinergic crisis
    C. Digoxin toxicity
    D. Epinephrine overdose

B. Cholinergic crisis

55. Side effects of anticholinergic drugs include:
    A. Bradycardia, diarrhea, miosis
    B. Dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention, mydriasis
    C. Tremors, seizures, sweating
    D. Hypotension, diarrhea, hypoglycemia

B. Dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention, mydriasis

56. Scopolamine is used to treat:
    A. Hypertension
    B. Motion sickness
    C. Asthma
    D. CHF

B. Motion sickness

57. Dicyclomine is indicated for:
    A. Hyperactive bowel
    B. Constipation
    C. GERD
    D. CHF

A. Hyperactive bowel

58. Anticholinergic drugs are contraindicated in:
    A. Glaucoma
    B. Parkinson’s disease
    C. Hypertension
    D. CHF

A. Glaucoma

59. A patient with myasthenia gravis suddenly develops weakness after excessive doses of anticholinesterase. The nurse suspects:
    A. Myasthenic crisis
    B. Cholinergic crisis
    C. Parkinson’s disease
    D. Adrenergic reaction

B. Cholinergic crisis

60. Which drug is used pre-operatively to reduce secretions?
    A. Atropine
    B. Epinephrine
    C. Neostigmine
    D. Salbutamol

A. Atropine

61. Cholinergic crisis antidote:
    A. Neostigmine
    B. Pyridostigmine
    C. Atropine
    D. Propranolol

C. Atropine

62. Muscarinic agonists stimulate:
    A. Tachycardia
    B. Urination, salivation, and GI motility
    C. Hypertension
    D. Bronchodilation

B. Urination, salivation, and GI motility

63. Nicotinic antagonists act by:
    A. Blocking skeletal muscle contraction
    B. Stimulating bronchodilation
    C. Causing bradycardia
    D. Increasing insulin secretion

A. Blocking skeletal muscle contraction

64. Antimuscarinic drug effect on the eye:
    A. Miosis
    B. Mydriasis
    C. Diplopia
    D. Nystagmus

B. Mydriasis

65. Anticholinesterase drug example:
    A. Atropine
    B. Pyridostigmine
    C. Scopolamine
    D. Salbutamol

B. Pyridostigmine

66. Most common cause of peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is:
    A. Smoking
    B. Alcohol
    C. Helicobacter pylori
    D. Stress

C. Helicobacter pylori

67. NSAIDs cause ulcers by:
    A. Inhibiting prostaglandins
    B. Increasing mucus production
    C. Increasing bicarbonate secretion
    D. Increasing blood flow

A. Inhibiting prostaglandins

68. First-line antibiotics for H. pylori include:
    A. Amoxicillin and clarithromycin
    B. Vancomycin and gentamicin
    C. Penicillin and erythromycin
    D. Metformin and rifampin

A. Amoxicillin and clarithromycin

69. Antacids neutralize:
    A. Gastrin
    B. Hydrochloric acid
    C. Mucus
    D. Bicarbonate

B. Hydrochloric acid

70. Example of antacid:
    A. Omeprazole
    B. Magnesium hydroxide
    C. Ranitidine
    D. Misoprostol

B. Magnesium hydroxide

71. Best time to give antacids:
    A. Before meals
    B. 1–2 hours after meals and at bedtime
    C. Early morning
    D. With food

B. 1–2 hours after meals and at bedtime

72. Histamine-2 receptor blockers act by:
    A. Neutralizing HCl
    B. Blocking H2 receptors in stomach lining
    C. Stimulating prostaglandins
    D. Increasing pepsin secretion

B. Blocking H2 receptors in stomach lining

73. Example of H2 receptor antagonist:
    A. Omeprazole
    B. Famotidine
    C. Misoprostol
    D. Sucralfate

B. Famotidine

74. Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) act by:
    A. Blocking gastric acid secretion at parietal cells
    B. Blocking H2 receptors
    C. Increasing bicarbonate secretion
    D. Stimulating gastrin

A. Blocking gastric acid secretion at parietal cells

75. Example of PPI:
    A. Sucralfate
    B. Omeprazole
    C. Ranitidine
    D. Bismuth subsalicylate

B. Omeprazole

76. Sucralfate acts by:
    A. Blocking H2 receptors
    B. Coating the ulcer to form protective barrier
    C. Increasing gastric acid
    D. Blocking acetylcholine

B. Coating the ulcer to form protective barrier

77. Misoprostol is contraindicated in:
    A. Diabetes
    B. Pregnancy
    C. Hypertension
    D. CHF

B. Pregnancy

78. Side effect of misoprostol:
    A. Constipation
    B. Diarrhea
    C. Seizures
    D. Hypertension

B. Diarrhea

79. Bismuth subsalicylate is useful in:
    A. GERD
    B. H. pylori infection
    C. Constipation
    D. Hypertension

B. H. pylori infection

80. A patient on sucralfate asks when to take it. The best advice is:
    A. After meals
    B. With meals
    C. On an empty stomach before meals
    D. At bedtime only

C. On an empty stomach before meals

81. Asthma involves:
    A. Bronchoconstriction and inflammation
    B. Hypertension and tachycardia
    C. Hypoglycemia only
    D. Alkalosis only

A. Bronchoconstriction and inflammation

82. First-line drugs for acute asthma attacks:
    A. LABAs
    B. SABAs
    C. Corticosteroids
    D. Anticholinergics

B. SABAs

83. Example of SABA:
    A. Salmeterol
    B. Formoterol
    C. Albuterol
    D. Montelukast

C. Albuterol

84. Methylxanthines like theophylline act by:
    A. Causing bronchodilation
    B. Blocking histamine
    C. Stimulating mucus production
    D. Reducing gastric acid

A. Causing bronchodilation

85. Normal serum theophylline level:
    A. 0–5 mcg/mL
    B. 5–15 mcg/mL
    C. 20–30 mcg/mL
    D. >30 mcg/mL

B. 5–15 mcg/mL

86. First sign of theophylline toxicity:
    A. Seizure
    B. Nausea
    C. Tremors
    D. Tachycardia

B. Nausea

87. Glucocorticoids in asthma are used for:
    A. Acute attacks only
    B. Long-term prevention of inflammation
    C. Immediate bronchodilation
    D. Increasing mucus secretion

B. Long-term prevention of inflammation

88. Nursing tip for inhaled corticosteroids:
    A. Use as needed for attacks
    B. Rinse mouth after use to prevent thrush
    C. Take only at night
    D. Stop abruptly when improved

B. Rinse mouth after use to prevent thrush

89. Abrupt withdrawal of corticosteroids may cause:
    A. Addisonian crisis
    B. Hypertension
    C. Seizures
    D. Tremors

A. Addisonian crisis

90. Cromolyn sodium acts by:
    A. Stabilizing mast cells, preventing inflammation
    B. Relaxing bronchial smooth muscle
    C. Blocking H2 receptors
    D. Replacing surfactant

A. Stabilizing mast cells, preventing inflammation

91. Cromolyn sodium is used for:
    A. Acute asthma
    B. Preventing asthma and exercise-induced bronchospasm
    C. CHF
    D. GERD

B. Preventing asthma and exercise-induced bronchospasm

92. Montelukast belongs to which drug class?
    A. PPI
    B. Leukotriene receptor antagonist
    C. Corticosteroid
    D. Beta-2 agonist

B. Leukotriene receptor antagonist

93. Primary action of leukotriene modifiers:
    A. Block bronchoconstriction and inflammation
    B. Stimulate histamine
    C. Increase surfactant
    D. Neutralize acid

A. Block bronchoconstriction and inflammation

94. LABAs such as salmeterol are used for:
    A. Acute relief
    B. Long-term asthma control
    C. GERD treatment
    D. CHF

B. Long-term asthma control

95. Anticholinergic inhaler like ipratropium acts by:
    A. Blocking muscarinic receptors → bronchodilation
    B. Stimulating beta receptors
    C. Blocking histamine
    D. Increasing insulin secretion

A. Blocking muscarinic receptors → bronchodilation

96. A patient with asthma arrives in the ER with severe wheezing and SOB. Which drug should be given first?
    A. Salmeterol
    B. Albuterol
    C. Cromolyn sodium
    D. Montelukast

B. Albuterol

97. A patient on beta blockers develops bradycardia (HR 45). What is the nurse’s best initial action?
    A. Hold the drug and notify the physician
    B. Give another dose
    C. Encourage exercise
    D. Administer atropine immediately without assessment

A. Hold the drug and notify the physician

98. A patient taking theophylline complains of nausea and insomnia. What should the nurse do?
    A. Reassure this is normal
    B. Suspect early toxicity and notify the provider
    C. Double the next dose
    D. Stop the drug immediately without order

B. Suspect early toxicity and notify the provider

99. A pregnant woman is prescribed misoprostol for ulcer prevention. The nurse’s best response is:
    A. Administer as ordered
    B. Teach that diarrhea is expected
    C. Question the order because it is contraindicated in pregnancy
    D. Suggest taking with food

C. Question the order because it is contraindicated in pregnancy

100. A hypertensive patient on propranolol reports difficulty breathing. The nurse suspects:
     A. Hypoglycemia
     B. Asthma exacerbation due to bronchoconstriction
     C. Normal side effect
     D. GERD

B. Asthma exacerbation due to bronchoconstriction