Quality Control (2/4/2025)

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54 Terms

1
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List the regulatory agencies

  • department of health and human services

  • national center for devices and radiological health

  • FDA

  • OSHA

  • EPA

  • NRC

2
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List the 2 most important government actions

  • 1990 - safe medical devices act (SMDA)

  • 1992 - mammography quality standards act (MQSA)

3
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Who provides the standards in radiology?

American College of Radiologists (ACR) and American Association of Physicists in Medicine (AAPM)

4
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DICOM standardized transmission behavior of all devices with a ___

PACS system

5
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___ sets standards for images

DICOM

6
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___ sets standards for transmission of written data

HL-7

7
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What is the goal of quality control?

calibrate and monitor technical equipment to maintain image quality and ensure radiation exposure as low as reasonable achievable

8
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Quality control is based on the need to ___

stabilize various equipment components

9
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What are the 2 ACR recommendations for digital QC?

  • must have documented policies and procedures for monitoring and evaluating equipment

  • QC program should be designed to maximize quality and accessibility of dx information

10
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List the 3 components of QC

  • acceptance testing

    • performed at equipment installation

  • diagnosis of deviations from acceptable equipment tolerances

    • routine maintenance tolerances

    • diagnosis deviations from baseline and tracks errors

  • documentation of corrections made

    • if it isn’t documented, it didn’t happen

11
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Explain acceptance testing as a component of quality control

  • at time of installation equipment is checked by service engineer and bio med, IS and PACS administrator, and a medical physicist

  • purpose is to confirm equipment is functioning according to specifications set by vendor

  • establishes baseline for equipment performance

  • manager signs off that equipment meets performance expectations

12
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List some aspects of performance monitoring

  • evaluates performance of generator and tube

  • simple to complex equipment can be used

  • ACR requires medical physicist to perform tests

  • most testing is performed annually

13
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What are some tools used to monitor equipment performance?

  • ion chamber dosimeter (gas filled chamber)

  • solid state dosimeter (newer, smaller, and accurate)

14
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Explain the control booth and exposure switch specifications as mandated by the FDA

  • control booth

    • minimum of 7.5 sq ft

    • walls 7 ft high

  • window

    • 1.5 mm lead equivalent

  • exposure switch

    • fixed

    • minimum of 30” from booth wall

15
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X-rays must scatter ___ times before entrance to control booth

2

16
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Explain the high voltage generator

  • converts low voltage to kilovolts

  • step-up transformer for kV

  • step down transformer for tube filament (current)

  • rectifiers convert incoming alternating voltage to pulsating direct current

17
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Explain high frequency generators

  • single source of alternating current

  • require less space and power

  • produce more efficient energy

  • very little ripple (<1%)

18
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What is used to assess timer accuracy on single phase equipment?

spinning top

19
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What is used to assess timer accuracy on 3 phase equipment?

motorized synchronous top

20
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Time accuracy with equipment operating at MORE THAN 10 ms = ___

Time accuracy with equipment operating at LESS THAN 10 ms = ___

more: ±5%

less: ±20%

21
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Back-up timer should terminate the exposure at ___

6 seconds or 600 mAs

22
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Explain the spinning top test

  • circular steel/lead disc with small hole is mounted on a base that allows it to move freely

  • test can indicate a problem with rectifier or timer

23
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In the spinning top test, if half of the dots are there, this is a ___ issue

rectifier

24
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In the spinning top test, if a number other than half of the dots are there, this is a ___ issue

timer

25
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Single phase rectifier equipment has ___ on the spinning top test

3 phase rectifier equipment has ___ on the spinning top test

single: dots

3: arc

26
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In a 1 second exposure, the spinning top test should produce an image with ___ dots

120

27
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In a 1 second exposure, the spinning top test should produce an image with ___ arc

a 360o

28
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Line focus principle

when the target angle is less than 45 degrees, the projected focal spot is smaller than the actual focal spot

29
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What is blooming?

  • FS size increases as tube ages (and with high mA)

  • causes electron cloud to swell

  • unwanted change in actual focal spot size during change in exposure

30
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Explain the pinhole camera focal spot test tool

  • CR is aligned through metal sheet with 0.03 & 0.075 mm holes (difficult to align)

  • exposure is made

  • image of focal spot displayed

  • actual size of effective focal spot is measured using micrometer

  • long exposure is hard on tube

  • causes blooming (more blooming with higher tube current)

31
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Explain the slit camera focal spot test tool

  • preferred method

  • metal template with series of finely cut slits in groups of 3

  • make exposure to determine smallest set of lines resolved

32
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Explain the star focal spot test tool

  • measure resolution

  • estimated FSS

33
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List the NEMA specifications for FS variations

  • FS smaller than 0.8 may be 50% larger

  • FS between 0.8mm and 1.5mm may be 40% larger

  • FS larger than 1.5 may be 30% larger

a 0.5mm FS may actually be 0.75mm and still be within the allowable tolerance

34
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As FSS goes up, the tolerance ___

goes down

35
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kV and mA accuracy refers to ___

stability of relationship between kV or mA and the resulting exposure intensity

36
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kV setting must be within ___ of kV output

±5%

37
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Measure tube potential using:

  • Wisconsin test cassette

  • Arden & Cook’s cassette

  • digital kVp meter

    • more accurate and easier to use

38
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Explain mA linearity

sequential increases in mA should produce the same increase in the exposure rate

exposures must not vary more than ±10%

39
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Explain mA reproducibility

output intensity must be consistent form one exposure to the next

same technique should have same exposure rate (must be within ±5%)

40
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Explain the law of reciprocity

any combination of mA and time that equals the same mAs should produce the same exposure intensity

41
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Fluctuations in mA readings = ___

“gassy” tube

42
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Explain HVL

  • expresses beam quality

    • test used to determine if equipment has adequate filtration

  • filtration of primary beam

    • filter absorbs low energy waves

    • improves image quality/reduces patient dose

    • increases average energy of beam

  • expressed in terms of Al/Eq

    • beam quality/penetrability

  • measured with computerized dosimeter

    • provides readout of HVL

NCRP requires equipment operating

43
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Explain the effect of collimation on the beam

  • limit size of x-ray field

  • improve image quality

    • less scatter

    • improved contrast

  • reduce patient dose

44
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Explain collimation congruency

  • measures how well collimator regulates field size

  • NCRP requires it must be accurate to within ± 2% of SID

  • 8 penny test

  • tested annually

45
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Explain central ray accuracy

  • beam alignment tool (cylinder with metal washer)

  • must be within ± 1% of SID

    • 0.4'“ at 40” SID

    • 0.72” at 72” SID

  • tested annually

46
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Explain distance accuracy

  • measuring devices and detents must be accurate

  • accuracy is checked with tape measure

  • tube angles should be accurate to within 2o

47
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Explain distortion checking

  • checked with wire mesh test

  • mesh is placed on cassette

  • dark area indicate poor contrast

  • pincushion: warped image appearance from curved surface of input screen to flat surface of output screen

48
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What is the max exposure rate for fluoroscopic systems?

exposure rate must not exceed 10 R/min at tabletop

entrance dose not to exceed 5 R/min

49
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What are some safety specifications on fluoro machines?

  • primary barrier of 2 mm Pb/eq for housing

  • bucky slot cover .25 mm Pb/eq

  • fluoro curtain .25 mm Pb/eq

  • cumulative fluoro timer (5 min alerts)

  • minimum source to table distance:

    • 15” for stationary

    • 12” for mobile

50
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What is field uniformity?

image is visually checked for defects

51
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What is ghosting?

  • inadequate CR erasure

    • loss of lamp intensity or short erasure time

  • residual charge is trapped in DEL of digital IR

  • off-focus/STEM radiation

52
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What are some examples of CR quality control tests?

  • dark noise

  • uniformity

  • spatial accuracy

  • erasure thoroughness

53
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What is the weakest link in the digital imaging chain?

the monitor

54
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Explain primary vs secondary display monitors

Primary:

Secondary: