Medical Technology Licensure Examination Review - Bacteriology, Mycology, Virology, and Parasitology

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These flashcards cover essential concepts and questions related to bacteriology, mycology, virology, and parasitology as part of the Medical Technology Licensure Examination.

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39 Terms

1
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What is forward grouping in blood typing?

Detecting ABO grouping by using the cells (RBC) of the patient and anti sera with known antigens to determine blood type.

2
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Which blood group is the most common?

O+ is the most common blood group because it is considered the ancestral form.

3
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What does the genotype —/— represent in the Rh system?

It represents Rh null, indicating a person who shows no Rh antigen on their RBC membrane.

4
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How are ABO and Rh testing different?

ABO reactions are primarily due to IgM and occur at room temperature; Rh antibodies are IgG and require a higher temperature for agglutination.

5
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What occurs when forward and reverse typing do not match?

This is called an ABO discrepancy, which can pose a threat to patient safety.

6
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Which antibody reacts best at pH 6.5?

Anti M antibody reacts best at pH 6.5.

7
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What phenotype lacks GYPA?

U-phenotype lacks GYPA.

8
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What is the most common antibody encountered in blood bank?

Anti-K is the most common immune red cell antibody.

9
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What blood group is known as the lucky 13th blood group system?

Scianna is known as ISBT 13.

10
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What type of inheritance describes the expression of most blood group antigens?

Codominant inheritance describes the expression of blood group antigens.

11
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What blood type cannot be produced by an AO and BO mating?

All blood types (A, B, AB, and O) are possible from an AO and BO mating.

12
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What is an unacceptable hemoglobin level for blood donation?

A hemoglobin level below 14.5 g/dl is unacceptable for donation.

13
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What should be done if a donor experiences difficulty breathing during blood donation?

Stop the bleeding and reassure the donor.

14
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Why might a recent traveler from Palawan be deferred from donating blood?

They may have been bitten by a malaria-carrying mosquito.

15
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What are valid reasons for permanent deferral from blood donation?

History of drug use, hemophilia, and present infection of an STI.

16
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What should be done first for pretransfusion testing?

Check the records for prior type and screen results on the patient.

17
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What should be done if a blood unit is returned after being released from the blood bank?

Dispose of the unit properly if it's been over 30 minutes since release.

18
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What type of donation involves a patient donating blood for their own future use?

Autologous donation is when patients donate blood for their own use.

19
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At what temperature should Whole Blood (FWB) be stored?

FWB should be stored at 1-6 degrees Celsius.

20
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What is the shelf life of ACD-A and CPD in terms of storage?

ACD-A has a storage time of 25 days, while CPD has a storage time of 21 days.

21
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What procedure is followed when preparing platelet concentrate?

Light spin is followed by a heavy spin during centrifugation.

22
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What is an aliquot transfused for?

Aliquots are used to transfuse infants and individuals with heart problems.

23
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What does a shift to the left in RBC storage indicate?

It indicates increased hemoglobin-oxygen affinity due to decreased 2,3-DPG.

24
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When does a mixed-field reaction in a weak D test suggest a problem?

It suggests a large fetomaternal hemorrhage.

25
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What is the minimum interval allowed between plateletpheresis procedures?

The minimum interval is 2 days.

26
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What is the most appropriate blood component for a patient with febrile transfusion reactions?

Leukocyte reduced red cells are the best component.

27
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What approach should be taken when separating FFP from a blood bag?

Get a satellite bag, connect it using weld, and prepare plasma for heavy spin centrifugation.

28
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How much fluid should be added for a 50-cc aliquot of PRBC?

10 mL should be added for a 50-cc aliquot.

29
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What indicates a transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO)?

High levels of natriuretic peptides such as BNP or NT-pro-BNP.

30
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What is the first marker appearing in acute hepatitis B virus infection?

HBsAg is the first serologic marker in acute hepatitis B.

31
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Which immunoglobulin can cross the placenta?

Only IgG can cross the placenta.

32
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What type of immunity does injection of attenuated antigen lead to?

Injection of attenuated antigen leads to active immunity.

33
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What characterizes the innate immune response?

Innate immunity includes phagocytosis by polymorphonuclear cells.

34
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What is the primary mediator of cell-mediated immunity?

T helper cells are the primary mediators of CMI.

35
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What marker is common in both classic and alternative complement pathways?

C3 is found in both the classic and alternative pathways.

36
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What diagnosis is likely if there is a presence of IgM antibody to Osp C?

The patient most likely has Lyme disease.

37
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What is the serological test used for syphilis diagnosis?

The FTA-ABS test is used as a confirmatory test for syphilis.

38
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What type of hypersensitivity involves antibody-antigen complex precipitation?

Type 3 hypersensitivity involves antibody-antigen complexes.

39
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What is detected by the latex particle agglutination test for Cryptococcus neoformans?

The latex particle agglutination test detects glucoronoxylmannan (GXM) from Cryptococcus neoformans.