CMAC Review Flashcards

Flashcards to review information regarding CMAC.

What type of law generally regulates the practice of medicine?

Civil law

Define Tort law.

Laws dealing with accidental or intentional harm to a person or property resulting from wrongdoing of others.

What is a common tort defined as failure to exercise the standard of care?

Negligence

Define Nonfeasance.

Failure to act when duty is indicated, resulting in or causing harm.

Define Misfeasance.

Improper performance of an act, resulting in or causing harm.

Define Malfeasance.

Performance of an improper act, resulting in or causing harm.

Define Malpractice.

Failure to act or improper performance of an act or performance of an improper act by a professional.

What are the four D's used to determine if a situation is malpractice?

Duty, Dereliction, Damage, and Direct cause.

What does "res ipsa loquitur" mean?

"The thing speaks for itself."

What does "respondeat superior" mean?

"Let the master answer." The employer is liable for the actions and conduct of the employees.

What does the Good Samaritan Act encourage?

Off-duty health care providers to render aid at the scene of accidents and protects them from liability or tort claims.

What is a contract?

An obligation resulting from an agreement between two or more parties.

List the five components required for a contract to be legal or binding.

An offer must be made, offer must be accepted, an exchange of something of value must occur, all parties must be legally capable of accepting the terms, and intent must be legal.

Define Expressed contracts.

Written or verbal contracts describing what each contractual party will do.

Define Implied contracts.

Contracts deduced by the actions of contracting parties.

Define Consent in medical care.

Voluntary permission given by a competent adult or legal agent of the patient.

What does informed consent require?

The physician or trained caregiver to explain the information necessary for the patient to make an educated decision regarding the procedure.

List the information a caregiver should provide when obtaining informed consent.

Explanation of the procedure and the reason, possible risks and side effects, alternative therapies and risks, prognosis with and without the procedure, and any other information to assist the patient.

Who may consent for medical treatment?

Adult for self or legal charge of his or her minor, emancipated minor, minors serving in the armed forces, minors seeking treatment for sexually transmitted diseases, birth control, or abortion, minor parent with custody of his or her minor child.

What are advanced directives?

Special documents signed by the patient, witnessed, and usually notarized that state the patient’s wishes for medical decisions.

Define Living will.

States acceptable and unacceptable means to sustain the patient’s life in case of terminal conditions.

Define Medical (durable) power of attorney.

Document stating whom the patient designates to make medical decisions regarding accepting and withholding treatment.

Define Designated anatomic donor.

Documentation expressing the patient’s desire to donate all or specific anatomic organs.

What is Administrative Law?

Regulations established and enforced by governmental agencies.

List examples of common regulators that affect the medical office.

Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA), Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), Internal Revenue Service (IRS), Equal Employment Opportunity Act (EEOA).

What does the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) regulate?

Issues laboratory testing standards for facilities performing specified tests.

What does the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulate?

Regulates safety in the workplace.

What does the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) regulate?

Regulate federal payroll taxes.

What does the Equal Employment Opportunity Act (EEOA) prohibit?

Prohibits employment discrimination because of disability, age, color, national origin, race, religion, or sex.

What does the Equal Pay Act prohibit?

Prohibits sex-based pay for the same job

What does the Age Discrimination in Employment Act protect?

People age 40 years and over.

What does the Americans with Disabilities Act protect?

Against people with disabilities in employment, transportation, public accommodation, communications, and governmental activities.

What does the Family Medical Leave Act (FMLA) provide?

12 Job-protected weeks without pay for family or medical needs.

What does Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 address?

Sexual Harassment.

What is Licensure?

Strongest form of professional regulation required to practice a profession and issued by an official agency

What is Public Duty and Mandatory Reporting?

States require physicians and other health care personnel to report certain information to provide for the health, safety, and welfare of the public.

Name some examples of reportable information.

Death and birth certificates, communicable diseases, STDs, suspected abuse and criminal acts, suicides or attempted suicides, PKU in newborns.

Define Ethics.

Moral principles, values, and duties, are moral guidelines set forth and enforced by peers, professional organizations, and the community.

Define Norm.

Behavior or conduct that is valued and usually expected.

Define Confidentiality in healthcare.

A standard and expectation in health care.

What is HIPAA?

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, federal law concerned with the security of the electronic medical record (EMR) and outlines what is considered confidential information.

List examples of patient information considered confidential under HIPAA.

Names, dates of birth, admission, discharge, death, telephone and fax numbers, e-mail addresses, Social Security numbers, medical records or account numbers, health plan beneficiary numbers, certificate/license numbers, vehicle or device numbers.

Under what circumstances can patient information be released?

Written consent of the patient, by subpoena, or in cases of mandatory reporting, work compensation, and TPO (treatment, payment, and health operation).

What is risk management?

A process to routinely assess, identify, correct, and monitor any potential hazards or risks to prevent harm and loss.

What is an incident report?

Also known as an occurrence report – usually required when an event occurs in a health care facility that has the potential of resulting in harm or loss (lawsuit).

What is quality improvement?

Measuring, improving, and re-measuring patient outcomes based on established criteria or indicators.

Define Prefix in medical terminology.

Beginning of the word; it modifies the root.

Define Root in medical terminology.

Meaning or central part of the word; it often refers to a body part.

Define Suffix in medical terminology.

Ending of the word; it modifies the root and usually refers to a condition, procedure, or action.

Define Median or midline plane.

Lengthwise plane through the midline running front to back dividing the body into equal right and left half's.

Define Sagittal plane.

Lengthwise plane parallel to the midline running front to back dividing the body or any part of it into unequal right and left sides or parts.

Define Coronal or frontal plane.

Lengthwise plane running side to side dividing the body into front and back parts.

Define Transverse or horizontal plane.

Crosswise plane dividing the body into upper and lower parts.

Define Superior directional term.

Toward the head or toward the upper part of the body.

Define Inferior directional term.

Farther away from the head or toward the lower part of the body.

Define Anterior or ventral directional term.

On the front or abdominal side of the body.

Define Posterior or dorsal directional term.

On the back side of the body.

Define Proximal directional term.

Usually trunk or middle of the body.

Define Distal directional term.

Farther away from the point of reference.

Define Medial directional term.

Closer to the midline of the body.

Define Lateral directional term.

Toward the side of the body or away from the midline.

Define Internal or deep directional term.

On the inside of the body.

Define External or superficial directional term.

On or close to the outside of the body.

What does the suffix "-algia" mean?

Pain

What does the suffix "-itis" mean?

Inflammation

What does the suffix "-ectomy" mean?

Excision, surgical removal of

Name the levels of structural organization from simple to complex.

Chemicals, Cells, Tissues, Organ, Systems

What does the cranial cavity contain?

The brain

What does the spinal cavity contain?

The spinal cord.

List the organs found in the abdominal cavity.

Stomach, most of intestines, kidneys, liver, gallbladder, pancreas and spleen.

List the organs found in the pelvic cavity.

Urinary bladder, rectum, internal organs of male/female reproductive systems.

Define Metabolism.

Energy transformation in living cells.

What is a Isotonic solution?

Same concentration as intracellular fluid. Solution moves in and out of the cell at the same rate.

What is a Hypotonic solution?

Less concentrated than intracellular fluid. It results in excess fluid entering the cell and may cause the cell to rupture.

What is a Hypertonic solution?

More concentrated than intracellular. Draws fluid away from the cell causing the cell to shrink.

List the four types of tissues.

Epithelial, Connective, Muscle, and Nervous

What is the function of epithelial tissue?

Forms outer surface of the body, lines body cavities and major tubes and passageways that open to the exterior.

What is the function of connective tissue?

Supports and connects other tissues and structures.

List the three types of muscle tissue.

Skeletal, Smooth, and Cardiac

List the functions of the integumentary system.

Protects against infection and other invaders, prevents dehydration, controls body temperature, receives sensory information, eliminates waste products, produces vitamin D.

What is the function of keratin?

Protein that thickens and makes skin waterproof

What is the function of collagen?

Fibrous protein found in the dermis, connective tissue, tendons and ligaments; provides strength and flexibility.

Name the functions of the skeletal system.

Provides frame and strength to the body, produces body movement, provides protection for organs, stores calcium, produces blood cells.

What are the two types of nerves in the peripheral nervous system?

Afferent and Efferent

List the special senses.

Vision, Hearing, Smell, and Taste

List the endocrine glands discussed.

Pineal, pituitary, adrenal, parathyroid, thyroid, and sex glands

List the goals of communication.

Obtain information, Provide information, Develop trust, and Relieve stress

What are the stages of death and dying?

Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, and Acceptance

List the topics of patient education.

Medication administration, equipment use and care, diet restrictions, pre-diagnostic directions, post-diagnostic, physical exercises, activity modifications, preventive health schedules, other health resources, health warning signs, self-exams, and health monitoring

Define Cognitive (knowledge, comprehensive) in the domains of learning

Is learning that focuses on the gaining of knowledge or information.

Define Affective (values, attitudes, opinions) in the domains of learning.

Is learning that deals with changes in attitude values and feelings.

Define Psychomotor (mental and physical abilities, sensory skills) in the domains of learning.

Is learning where new skills or procedures are performed.

What is open hour scheduling?

No appointments needed, commonly found in urgent care centers, may also be known as tidal wave or open booking.

What is cluster scheduling?

Similar procedures scheduled on predetermined days, also known as group procedures or categorizing.

Define Active files.

Patient seen within 2 – 5 years.

Define Inactive files.

Patient not seen within 2 – 5 years

Define Closed files.

Patient not expected to return to practice if the patient is deceased, moved, or reached an age limit.

Define NP.

New patient

Define EP.

Established patient

How long should an adult medical record be retained?

7 to 10 years