Mendelian Genetics, Developmental Biology, and Molecular Genetics Overview

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These flashcards review key points from Mendelian genetics, embryonic development, molecular genetics, and gene regulation to aid exam preparation.

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41 Terms

1
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Who is considered the father of modern genetics for his work with pea plants?

Gregor Mendel, an Austrian monk.

2
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What three traits made Pisum sativum an ideal organism for Mendel’s experiments?

Multiple observable traits, self-fertilization with limited accidental cross-pollination, and fully fertile self-fertilized offspring.

3
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In Mendel’s terminology, what is the P1 generation?

The true-breeding parental generation in a genetic cross.

4
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What phenotype ratio did Mendel observe in the F2 generation of a monohybrid cross?

Approximately 3 dominant : 1 recessive.

5
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State Mendel’s Principle of Segregation.

The two alleles for each trait separate during gamete formation, so each gamete carries only one allele.

6
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State Mendel’s Principle of Independent Assortment.

Alleles of genes on different chromosomes assort independently during gamete formation.

7
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What is complete dominance?

A situation where the heterozygote’s phenotype is identical to that of the homozygous dominant individual.

8
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Define genotype.

The genetic makeup (allelic composition) of an organism.

9
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Define phenotype.

The observable traits or characteristics of an organism.

10
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What is a Punnett square used for?

To predict the probable genotypes and phenotypes of offspring from a genetic cross.

11
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Which scientist coined the term ‘mutation’ for sudden heritable changes?

Hugo de Vries.

12
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List the three major functions of fertilization.

Gene transmission from both parents, restoration of diploid chromosome number, and initiation of development.

13
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What is cleavage in embryology?

Rapid mitotic divisions that convert the zygote into a multicellular embryo.

14
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Name the three primary germ layers formed during gastrulation.

Ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm.

15
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Which germ layer gives rise to the nervous system?

Ectoderm.

16
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During which trimester are most major organ systems formed in humans?

The first trimester.

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What hormone detected by pregnancy tests is secreted by the chorion?

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).

18
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What sugar is found in RNA but not in DNA?

Ribose.

19
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Which nitrogenous base replaces thymine in RNA?

Uracil.

20
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Name the three main types of RNA.

Messenger RNA (mRNA), transfer RNA (tRNA), and ribosomal RNA (rRNA).

21
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What is the function of mRNA?

Carries the genetic message from DNA to ribosomes for protein synthesis.

22
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Describe the ‘cloverleaf’ structure region that attaches amino acids on tRNA.

The CCA 3′ end, where the activated amino acid is covalently attached.

23
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Define genetic code.

The correspondence between mRNA nucleotide triplets (codons) and amino acids in proteins.

24
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How many possible codons exist in the triplet genetic code?

64.

25
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What is meant by degeneracy of the genetic code?

Most amino acids are specified by more than one codon.

26
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Which codon serves as the universal start codon in translation?

AUG (codes for methionine).

27
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List the three stop codons.

UAA, UAG, and UGA.

28
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What enzyme synthesizes RNA during transcription?

RNA polymerase.

29
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What are the three stages of transcription?

Initiation, elongation, and termination.

30
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Which protein factors recognize stop codons during translation?

Release factors (RF1, RF2).

31
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Define an operon.

A coordinated unit of gene expression consisting of structural genes, an operator, and a promoter.

32
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In the lac operon, what molecule acts as the inducer?

Lactose (specifically allolactose).

33
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What happens when the lac repressor binds the operator?

Transcription of lac structural genes is blocked.

34
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Differentiate between positive and negative gene regulation.

Negative regulation uses a repressor to block transcription; positive regulation uses an activator to enhance transcription.

35
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What is a cistron?

A DNA segment that codes for a single polypeptide chain.

36
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Define muton.

The smallest unit of genetic material that can mutate to produce a phenotypic change—essentially one nucleotide pair.

37
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What is a split gene?

A eukaryotic gene containing coding sequences (exons) interrupted by non-coding sequences (introns).

38
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Explain wobble pairing.

Flexibility in base-pairing at the 3′ base of an mRNA codon, allowing one tRNA to recognize multiple codons.

39
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What are polysomes?

Clusters of ribosomes simultaneously translating a single mRNA strand.

40
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Which ribosomal subunit in bacteria contains the 16S rRNA?

The 30S small subunit.

41
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What is the main control point for gene expression in most cells?

Regulation of transcription initiation.