BCR TBL 10 - Pathology of Myeloid Cells

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198 Terms

1
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What is the most common mutation in essential thrombocythemia (ET)?

JAK2 V617F

2
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Which MPN subtype has the highest risk of myelofibrotic transformation?

Polycythaemia vera

3
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What is the role of CALR mutation testing?

To confirm clonal MPN in JAK2-negative ET or myelofibrosis

4
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What are two complications of untreated PV?

Thrombosis and progression to myelofibrosis or AML

5
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What is the main mechanism of thrombosis in MPNs?

Increased blood viscosity and dysfunctional platelets

6
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What are common symptoms of myelofibrosis?

Weight loss, fatigue, massive splenomegaly, night sweats

7
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What is the cause of teardrop cells in myelofibrosis?

Extramedullary hematopoiesis due to fibrotic marrow

8
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What does a leukoerythroblastic blood film show?

Nucleated RBCs and immature granulocytes

9
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What does a “dry tap” on bone marrow aspiration indicate?

Myelofibrosis or marrow infiltration

10
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Which two mutations are most common in primary myelofibrosis?

JAK2 and CALR

11
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What is the main driver of symptoms in myelofibrosis?

Cytokine release and extramedullary hematopoiesis

12
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What therapy reduces splenomegaly in myelofibrosis?

JAK inhibitors like ruxolitinib

13
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What is the clinical triad of PMF?

Anemia, splenomegaly, constitutional symptoms

14
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What are the criteria for diagnosing essential thrombocythemia?

Persistent platelets >450, exclusion of reactive causes, clonal markers (JAK2, CALR, MPL)

15
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What are common bleeding symptoms in ET despite high platelets?

Nosebleeds, bruising, GI bleeding (due to platelet dysfunction)

16
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What is a microvascular complication of ET?

Erythromelalgia

17
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What differentiates CMML from reactive monocytosis?

Persistent monocytosis >1 × 10⁹/L with dysplasia or clonal cytogenetics

18
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What features overlap in MDS/MPN syndromes?

Cytopenias and proliferation (e.g., CMML)

19
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What cytogenetic abnormality is associated with favorable prognosis in MDS?

Isolated del(5q)

20
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Which MDS subtype carries the highest risk of AML progression?

MDS with excess blasts

21
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What is the IPSS-R score used for?

Risk stratification in MDS

22
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What is the blast threshold for AML diagnosis?

≥20% blasts in bone marrow or blood

23
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What does MPO (myeloperoxidase) positivity indicate?

Myeloid lineage (AML)

24
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What is the typical WBC count in APL?

Can be low, normal, or high—variable

25
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Which AML subtype is a medical emergency?

APL (acute promyelocytic leukemia)

26
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What is the first-line treatment in APL?

ATRA (all-trans retinoic acid)

27
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What test confirms FLT3 mutation?

Molecular PCR testing

28
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Which AML translocation is associated with gum infiltration and monocytic features?

t(9;11)

29
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What defines therapy-related AML?

AML following prior chemo/radiation

30
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What is a common therapy-related AML cytogenetic abnormality?

Complex karyotype or chromosome 5/7 deletion

31
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Which population is most affected by MDS?

Elderly (median age ~70 years)

32
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What does "ineffective hematopoiesis" mean in MDS?

Marrow produces cells that undergo apoptosis before maturing

33
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What test shows ring sideroblasts?

Prussian blue stain of bone marrow aspirate

34
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What are the lab features of MDS with ring sideroblasts?

Anemia + >15% ring sideroblasts

35
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What is the most common presenting feature of MDS?

Anemia

36
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What is the difference between primary and secondary AML?

Primary arises de novo; secondary follows MDS/MPN/chemo

37
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What is the survival impact of FLT3 mutation in AML?

Poorer overall survival, higher relapse risk

38
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What are the phases of ALL treatment?

Induction, consolidation, maintenance, CNS prophylaxis

39
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Which ALL subtype is more likely to involve the mediastinum?

T-cell ALL

40
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What immunophenotype confirms T-ALL?

CD3+, TdT+

41
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What are the CNS prophylaxis methods in ALL?

Intrathecal chemotherapy (methotrexate), systemic high-dose therapy

42
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What defines minimal residual disease (MRD)?

Molecular evidence of leukemia below morphological detection

43
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Why is MRD testing important in leukemia?

Prognostic and guides therapy intensity

44
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What is the hallmark of a leukemoid reaction?

Marked neutrophilia with left shift but high LAP score

45
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How do you distinguish leukemoid reaction from CML?

Leukemoid = high LAP, no BCR-ABL; CML = low LAP, BCR-ABL+

46
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What is the function of tyrosine kinase inhibitors in CML?

Block BCR-ABL–mediated proliferation

47
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Which test monitors response to therapy in CML?

BCR-ABL PCR (quantitative)

48
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What is complete molecular remission in CML?

Undetectable BCR-ABL by PCR

49
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What does smudge cell represent pathologically?

Fragile lymphocyte disrupted during smear preparation

50
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What defines Richter’s transformation?

CLL transforming into high-grade lymphoma (e.g., DLBCL)

51
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What is the prognosis of Richter’s transformation?

Poor

52
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What are common infections in CLL?

Encapsulated organisms (e.g., S. pneumoniae)

53
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What is the role of BTK inhibitors?

Block B-cell signaling in CLL

54
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What is a common side effect of ibrutinib?

Atrial fibrillation

55
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What defines lymphocytosis?

4.0 × 10⁹/L lymphocytes in adults

56
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What is the immunophenotype of hairy cell leukemia?

CD103+, CD11c+, TRAP+

57
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What is a clinical feature of hairy cell leukemia?

Massive splenomegaly with pancytopenia

58
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What is a classic BM finding in hairy cell leukemia?

“Fried egg” appearance of cells

59
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What is the first-line therapy in hairy cell leukemia?

Cladribine (purine analogue)

60
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Which leukemia has the best prognosis with treatment?

APL (if treated early)

61
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Which leukemia subtype commonly presents with DIC?

APL (M3)

62
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What is the role of arsenic trioxide in APL?

Used in combination with ATRA to induce remission

63
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What indicates hematologic remission in leukemia?

Normal CBC + <5% blasts in marrow

64
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What is the cause of bleeding in leukemia?

Thrombocytopenia and DIC (especially in APL)

65
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What defines high-risk ALL?

Age >10, WBC >50,000, poor cytogenetics

66
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What are supportive care measures in leukemia?

Transfusions, antibiotics, antifungals, tumor lysis prevention

67
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What causes tumor lysis syndrome?

Rapid lysis of tumor cells → hyperuricemia, hyperkalemia, etc.

68
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What is the treatment of tumor lysis syndrome?

Hydration, allopurinol, rasburicase

69
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What test confirms CNS leukemia?

CSF cytology from lumbar puncture

70
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What is the role of allogeneic stem cell transplant?

Potential curative therapy for high-risk/relapsed AML and ALL

71
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When is allogeneic transplant indicated in AML?

Poor risk cytogenetics or refractory disease

72
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What is graft-vs-leukemia effect?

Donor immune cells attack residual leukemic cells

73
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What defines chronic phase in CML?

<10% blasts in blood/marrow

74
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What defines accelerated phase in CML?

10–19% blasts or increasing counts/resistance

75
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What defines blast crisis in CML?

≥20% blasts, resembles acute leukemia

76
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Which cytogenetic abnormality is common in therapy-related AML?

Monosomy 7 or complex karyotype

77
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What defines aplastic anemia (not leukemia but relevant differential)?

Hypocellular marrow with pancytopenia

78
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How is aplastic anemia distinguished from MDS?

Aplastic: hypocellular, no dysplasia; MDS: hypercellular, dysplasia

79
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What drug can cause aplastic anemia?

Chloramphenicol

80
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What lab feature is common in ALL?

Pancytopenia with circulating lymphoblasts

81
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What distinguishes lymphoblasts from myeloblasts on cytochemistry?

TdT+ for lymphoblasts; MPO+ for myeloblasts

82
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What does high LDH suggest in leukemia?

High cell turnover

83
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Which leukemia presents with mediastinal mass in adolescents?

T-cell ALL

84
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What is the classic demographic for T-ALL?

Teenage males with mediastinal mass

85
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What is the effect of JAK2 mutation on marrow?

Constitutive activation → proliferation of erythroid, megakaryocytic lines

86
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What is a risk factor for secondary AML?

Prior alkylating agents (e.g., cyclophosphamide)

87
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Which test distinguishes MDS from nutritional anemia?

Bone marrow biopsy with cytogenetics

88
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What is the hallmark cytogenetic of APL?

PML-RARA fusion gene

89
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What is the significance of t(8;21) in AML?

Favorable prognosis

90
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What is the function of ATRA in APL?

Overcomes maturation arrest by PML-RARA

91
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What is the diagnostic marker of megakaryocytes?

CD41 or CD61

92
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What is the significance of elevated beta-2 microglobulin in CLL?

Poorer prognosis

93
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What is the first sign of CLL progression?

Anemia or thrombocytopenia

94
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What test is used to monitor disease burden post-chemotherapy in leukemia?

Minimal residual disease (MRD) testing

95
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What is a common cause of low neutrophil count?

Viral infection, chemotherapy, autoimmune diseases, bone marrow failure

96
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What is Felty’s Syndrome?

A triad of rheumatoid arthritis, neutropenia, and splenomegaly

97
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Which leukemia is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome?

Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)

98
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What translocation defines the Philadelphia chromosome?

t(9;22)

99
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Which gene fusion is involved in CML?

BCR-ABL

100
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What is a key lab finding in CML?

Leukocytosis, basophilia, low LAP score, BCR-ABL+