NCMB 419 Prelim

1. Who is considered the “Father of Scientific Management”?
   A. Henry Fayol
   B. Max Weber
   C. Frederick Taylor
   D. Elton Mayo

C. Frederick Taylor

2. The management function that involves determining goals, objectives, policies, and rules is:
   A. Planning
   B. Organizing
   C. Directing
   D. Controlling

A. Planning

3. Which management theory introduced the use of time and motion studies?
   A. Gilbreth’s Motion Study
   B. Scientific Management
   C. Human Relations Theory
   D. Contingency Theory

B. Scientific Management

4. Henry Gantt contributed to management by developing:
   A. Motion picture analysis
   B. Gantt Chart
   C. Maslow’s Hierarchy
   D. Managerial Grid

B. Gantt Chart

5. Fayol’s principle stating “each employee should receive orders from one superior only” refers to:
   A. Unity of Direction
   B. Scalar Chain
   C. Unity of Command
   D. Equity

C. Unity of Command

6. The Hawthorne Effect refers to:
   A. Productivity increase when workers are observed
   B. Better results due to strict control
   C. Efficiency when workers are punished
   D. Improved results due to new technology

A. Productivity increase when workers are observed

7. The leadership style that makes all decisions and uses coercion is:
   A. Democratic
   B. Laissez-faire
   C. Authoritarian
   D. Transformational

C. Authoritarian

8. A manager ensures fiscal accountability and performance appraisal. This function is:
   A. Staffing
   B. Directing
   C. Controlling
   D. Organizing

C. Controlling

9. “Span of control” was introduced by:
   A. Fayol
   B. Allurwick
   C. Weber
   D. Mayo

B. Allurwick

10. A manager communicating and motivating staff is practicing which function?
    A. Directing
    B. Controlling
    C. Organizing
    D. Staffing

A. Directing

11. Which leadership theory assumes leaders are born, not made?
    A. Great Man Theory
    B. Trait Theory
    C. Behavioral Theory
    D. Situational Theory

A. Great Man Theory

12. Which of the following is NOT part of Fayol’s 14 principles?
    A. Discipline
    B. Initiative
    C. Equity
    D. Coercion

D. Coercion

13. Which type of power comes from admiration and identification with the leader?
    A. Legitimate Power
    B. Coercive Power
    C. Referent Power
    D. Reward Power

C. Referent Power

14. In McGregor’s Theory X, employees are viewed as:
    A. Ambitious and self-motivated
    B. Lazy and require supervision
    C. Creative and participative
    D. Innovative and cooperative

B. Lazy and require supervision

15. The style in Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership suitable for low ability, low motivation followers is:
    A. Delegating
    B. Coaching
    C. Directing
    D. Supporting

C. Directing

16. Which type of leader inspires through optimism and motivates creativity?
    A. Transactional
    B. Transformational
    C. Laissez-faire
    D. Autocratic

B. Transformational

17. A nurse manager demonstrates fairness and logical decision-making. This describes:
    A. Democratic leadership
    B. Authoritarian leadership
    C. Laissez-faire leadership
    D. Situational leadership

A. Democratic leadership

18. “Efficiency in operation results from arranging conditions so human elements interfere minimally” describes:
    A. Team Manager
    B. Authority-Obedient Manager
    C. Country Club Manager
    D. Middle-of-the-Road Manager

B. Authority-Obedient Manager

19. Which type of managerial skill is the ability to see the whole picture and think creatively?
    A. Technical
    B. Human
    C. Conceptual
    D. Operational

C. Conceptual

20. Which of the following is an interpersonal role of a manager?
    A. Entrepreneur
    B. Leader
    C. Monitor
    D. Spokesperson

B. Leader

21. Which leadership theory suggests traits are needed depending on the situation?
    A. Trait Theory
    B. Situational Theory
    C. Contingency Theory
    D. Charismatic Theory

B. Situational Theory

22. Which nursing leadership role emphasizes empowering others and promoting change?
    A. Manager
    B. Leader
    C. Administrator
    D. Controller

B. Leader

23. A nurse leader uses “carrot and stick” methods such as rewards for performance. This is:
    A. Transactional leadership
    B. Transformational leadership
    C. Democratic leadership
    D. Laissez-faire leadership

A. Transactional leadership

24. Which type of nurse manager role involves decision-making and innovation?
    A. Interpersonal role
    B. Informational role
    C. Decisional role
    D. Monitoring role

C. Decisional role

25. A manager who motivates staff through suggestions and guidance instead of commands shows:
    A. Authoritarian style
    B. Democratic style
    C. Laissez-faire style
    D. Transactional style

B. Democratic style

$26. The system where one nurse provides total care for a group of patients during her shift is:
A. Functional Nursing
B. Team Nursing
C. Primary Nursing
D. Case Method

C. Primary Nursing

27. Functional nursing is best described as:
    A. One nurse assumes 24-hour responsibility
    B. Each staff member performs specific tasks for many patients
    C. Patients are grouped by diagnosis
    D. One nurse cares for one patient only

B. Each staff member performs specific tasks for many patients

28. Case method of nursing is also known as:
    A. Total patient care
    B. Primary nursing
    C. Functional nursing
    D. Team nursing

A. Total patient care

29. Team nursing is characterized by:
    A. Each patient having one assigned nurse for the whole stay
    B. Delegation to unlicensed assistive personnel
    C. Group of patients cared for by a team led by RN
    D. Physician assuming nursing responsibilities

C. Group of patients cared for by a team led by RN

30. Modular nursing is a modification of:
    A. Functional nursing
    B. Team nursing
    C. Case method
    D. Primary nursing

B. Team nursing

31. A nurse is assigned 6 patients post-operatively and works with one LPN and one aide. This is an example of:
    A. Functional nursing
    B. Primary nursing
    C. Team nursing
    D. Case method

C. Team nursing

32. The most cost-effective and widely used delivery system today is:
    A. Functional
    B. Team
    C. Primary
    D. Modular

B. Team

33. The delivery system where a nurse coordinates care from admission to discharge, focusing on outcomes, is:
    A. Primary nursing
    B. Case management
    C. Team nursing
    D. Functional nursing

B. Case management

34. Critical pathways are used in:
    A. Case management
    B. Functional nursing
    C. Modular nursing
    D. Primary nursing

A. Case management

35. An advantage of primary nursing is:
    A. Promotes accountability and autonomy
    B. Cheaper than other systems
    C. Easier for unlicensed staff
    D. Minimal nurse responsibility

A. Promotes accountability and autonomy

36. The nurse–patient ratio in ICU is usually:
    A. 1:4
    B. 1:3
    C. 1:2
    D. 1:6

C. 1:2

37. Which staffing pattern may cause fragmentation of care?
    A. Primary nursing
    B. Functional nursing
    C. Team nursing
    D. Case management

B. Functional nursing

38. Which delivery system provides continuity but is expensive?
    A. Primary nursing
    B. Functional nursing
    C. Team nursing
    D. Modular nursing

A. Primary nursing

39. A nurse assumes responsibility for a patient’s care plan, evaluation, and discharge. This demonstrates:
    A. Functional role
    B. Primary nursing
    C. Modular nursing
    D. Team nursing

B. Primary nursing

40. The system that emphasizes interdisciplinary collaboration to achieve cost-effectiveness:
    A. Team nursing
    B. Modular nursing
    C. Case management
    D. Functional nursing

C. Case management

41. A newly licensed nurse is assigned a small group of stable patients with routine needs. This is best under:
    A. Team nursing
    B. Primary nursing
    C. Functional nursing
    D. Case management

C. Functional nursing

42. Who approves staffing plans in hospitals?
    A. Nurse Manager
    B. Hospital Director
    C. Department of Health
    D. Chief Nurse

D. Chief Nurse

43. In staffing, the principle of “Right task to the right person” is part of:
    A. Prioritization
    B. Delegation
    C. Supervision
    D. Documentation

B. Delegation

44. An RN delegates vital signs monitoring of stable patients to a nursing assistant. This is:
    A. Improper delegation
    B. Appropriate delegation
    C. Illegal delegation
    D. Role reversal

B. Appropriate delegation

45. The nurse retains accountability when delegating tasks. This means:
    A. The RN is no longer responsible once task is assigned
    B. The RN shares responsibility with the assistant
    C. The RN is still ultimately responsible for patient outcomes
    D. The assistant is fully responsible for errors

C. The RN is still ultimately responsible for patient outcomes

46. Evidence-based practice (EBP) is based on:
    A. Tradition and authority
    B. Patient values, clinical expertise, research evidence
    C. Physician orders only
    D. Hospital policy only

B. Patient values, clinical expertise, research evidence

47. The first step in EBP is:
    A. Evaluate outcomes
    B. Formulate a clinical question
    C. Search for evidence
    D. Appraise evidence

B. Formulate a clinical question

48. A good clinical question follows the PICO format. PICO stands for:
    A. Problem, Intervention, Comparison, Outcome
    B. Patient, Intervention, Criteria, Outcome
    C. Plan, Implementation, Care, Observation
    D. Patient, Information, Care, Outcome

A. Problem, Intervention, Comparison, Outcome

49. The highest level of evidence comes from:
    A. Expert opinion
    B. Randomized controlled trials (RCTs)
    C. Case studies
    D. Anecdotal reports

B. Randomized controlled trials (RCTs)

50. Clinical practice guidelines are developed to:
    A. Replace physician’s orders
    B. Standardize evidence-based care
    C. Limit nursing autonomy
    D. Increase paperwork

B. Standardize evidence-based care

51. Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI) focuses on:
    A. Blaming staff for errors
    B. Ongoing improvement of systems and processes
    C. Reducing staffing
    D. Cost reduction only

B. Ongoing improvement of systems and processes

52. Root Cause Analysis (RCA) is performed after:
    A. Patient complaints
    B. Sentinel events
    C. Routine checks
    D. Staff absences

B. Sentinel events

53. Which indicator measures patient-centered outcomes?
    A. Structure
    B. Process
    C. Outcome
    D. Input

C. Outcome

54. Example of a process indicator is:
    A. Infection rate
    B. Nurse–patient ratio
    C. Proper hand hygiene technique
    D. Mortality rate

C. Proper hand hygiene technique

55. Benchmarking is used to:
    A. Compare performance with best practices
    B. Replace nurse staffing
    C. Identify patient diagnoses
    D. Train new staff

A. Compare performance with best practices

56. In Six Sigma, a DMAIC cycle is used. DMAIC stands for:
    A. Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Control
    B. Decide, Manage, Apply, Integrate, Control
    C. Define, Monitor, Adapt, Initiate, Check
    D. Determine, Manage, Assess, Improve, Care

A. Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Control

57. A fall rate of 3 per 1,000 patient days is an example of:
    A. Process indicator
    B. Outcome indicator
    C. Structure indicator
    D. Benchmark

B. Outcome indicator

58. In EBP, a systematic review is:
    A. A summary of research studies on a topic
    B. One single case study
    C. Anecdotal evidence
    D. A hospital policy

A. A summary of research studies on a topic

59. An advantage of EBP is:
    A. Decreases nurse accountability
    B. Provides care based on best available evidence
    C. Replaces patient preferences
    D. Eliminates critical thinking

B. Provides care based on best available evidence

60. Quality improvement projects differ from research because they:
    A. Aim to generate new knowledge
    B. Aim to improve local systems and processes
    C. Require RCTs
    D. Must be published internationally

B. Aim to improve local systems and processes

61. Nursing ethics is primarily concerned with:
    A. Hospital policies
    B. Patient’s rights and welfare
    C. Physician’s autonomy
    D. Managerial authority

B. Patient’s rights and welfare

62. The Philippine Nurses Code of Ethics was developed by:
    A. WHO
    B. PRC – Board of Nursing
    C. DOH
    D. ICN only

B. PRC – Board of Nursing

63. Which principle means “do no harm”?
    A. Autonomy
    B. Beneficence
    C. Nonmaleficence
    D. Justice

C. Nonmaleficence

64. Respecting a patient’s right to make their own decisions reflects:
    A. Autonomy
    B. Beneficence
    C. Justice
    D. Fidelity

A. Autonomy

65. Giving fair and equal treatment to all patients is:
    A. Autonomy
    B. Beneficence
    C. Nonmaleficence
    D. Justice

D. Justice

66. Fidelity in nursing means:
    A. Truth-telling
    B. Keeping promises and commitments
    C. Doing good for patients
    D. Treating fairly

B. Keeping promises and commitments

67. Veracity is the principle of:
    A. Justice
    B. Truthfulness
    C. Loyalty
    D. Confidentiality

B. Truthfulness

68. The ethical principle applied when providing emergency care regardless of ability to pay is:
    A. Beneficence
    B. Justice
    C. Nonmaleficence
    D. Fidelity

B. Justice

69. An example of ethical dilemma is:
    A. Choosing between patient autonomy and physician orders
    B. Following a doctor’s prescription
    C. Recording vital signs
    D. Administering routine meds

A. Choosing between patient autonomy and physician orders

70. Which law governs nursing practice in the Philippines?
    A. RA 7164
    B. RA 9173
    C. RA 6713
    D. RA 7600

B. RA 9173

71. A nurse who administers a wrong medication is liable for:
    A. Criminal negligence
    B. Civil liability
    C. Both criminal and civil liability
    D. None

C. Both criminal and civil liability

72. Informed consent must be obtained by:
    A. Nurse
    B. Physician
    C. Hospital director
    D. Relative

B. Physician

73. A nurse who fails to report child abuse may be guilty of:
    A. Negligence
    B. Breach of confidentiality
    C. Malpractice
    D. Omission

D. Omission

74. Doctrine that makes the employer liable for employee’s negligence:
    A. Stare decisis
    B. Res ipsa loquitur
    C. Respondeat superior
    D. Subpoena duces tecum

C. Respondeat superior

75. Doing a procedure without consent is:
    A. Assault
    B. Battery
    C. Negligence
    D. Malpractice

B. Battery

76. Verbal threats to a patient is:
    A. Assault
    B. Battery
    C. Negligence
    D. Invasion of privacy

A. Assault

77. Which document gives the patient right to decide about end-of-life care?
    A. Contract
    B. Living will / Advance directive
    C. Informed consent
    D. DNR order

B. Living will / Advance directive

78. The nurse practice act aims to:
    A. Protect nurses from lawsuits
    B. Define scope of nursing practice
    C. Increase nurse salary
    D. Standardize global practice

B. Define scope of nursing practice

79. Which of the following is an ethical issue in research?
    A. Informed consent
    B. Confidentiality
    C. Risk–benefit ratio
    D. All of the above

D. All of the above

80. The legal doctrine “Res ipsa loquitur” means:
    A. The thing speaks for itself
    B. Let the superior answer
    C. To stand by things decided
    D. To bring with you

A. The thing speaks for itself

81. A contract requires the following EXCEPT:
    A. Consent
    B. Object
    C. Consideration
    D. Prescription

D. Prescription

82. An expressed contract is:
    A. Made verbally or in writing
    B. Based on conduct or implication
    C. Legally invalid
    D. Between institutions only

A. Made verbally or in writing

83. A nurse–patient relationship is considered what kind of contract?
    A. Expressed
    B. Implied
    C. Void
    D. Illegal

B. Implied

84. Breach of contract occurs when:
    A. Patient refuses medication
    B. Nurse fails to render agreed care
    C. Patient is transferred
    D. Consent is signed

B. Nurse fails to render agreed care

85. A contract that lacks essential elements is:
    A. Valid
    B. Void
    C. Executory
    D. Consensual

B. Void

86. An example of quasi-contract in nursing is:
    A. Administering medication as ordered
    B. Providing emergency care to an unconscious patient
    C. Signed informed consent
    D. Delegation of tasks

B. Providing emergency care to an unconscious patient

87. Situational: A nurse finds a patient collapse in the hallway. No consent is available. She starts CPR. This act is based on:
    A. Breach of contract
    B. Quasi-contract / Implied consent
    C. Expressed consent
    D. Malpractice

B. Quasi-contract / Implied consent

88. A nurse is subpoenaed in court. She should:
    A. Ignore the order
    B. Appear at court on the date stated
    C. Send a co-worker
    D. Resign from work

B. Appear at court on the date stated

89. Situational: A patient refuses surgery but the doctor insists and the nurse supports the patient’s decision. Which principle is applied?
    A. Beneficence
    B. Autonomy
    C. Fidelity
    D. Justice

B. Autonomy

90. Situational: A nurse witnesses a physician making a medication error. Best action is:
    A. Ignore since it’s the physician’s responsibility
    B. Report immediately and ensure patient safety
    C. Wait for patient reaction
    D. Cover up to avoid conflict

B. Report immediately and ensure patient safety

91. Situational: A patient shares private information. The nurse discusses it with another staff not involved in care. This is a violation of:
    A. Autonomy
    B. Confidentiality
    C. Justice
    D. Fidelity

B. Confidentiality

92. Situational: A patient dies after a nurse gives the wrong drug. This is an example of:
    A. Negligence
    B. Malpractice
    C. Omission
    D. Assault

B. Malpractice

93. Situational: During delegation, a nurse assigns wound care to an aide. The patient develops infection. Who is accountable?
    A. The aide
    B. The nurse delegating
    C. The patient
    D. The physician

B. The nurse delegating

94. Situational: A nurse refuses to care for an HIV-positive patient. This is:
    A. Negligence
    B. Discrimination and violation of ethics
    C. Justice
    D. Confidentiality breach

B. Discrimination and violation of ethics

95. Situational: A patient demands to see his chart. The nurse should:
    A. Refuse access
    B. Allow access with proper authorization
    C. Tear out sensitive pages
    D. Refer to family only

B. Allow access with proper authorization

96. Situational: A terminally ill patient requests not to be resuscitated. The nurse advocates for:
    A. DNR order
    B. Battery
    C. Negligence
    D. Invasion of privacy

A. DNR order

97. Situational: A patient’s family insists on continuing futile treatment. The nurse should apply which ethical principle?
    A. Veracity
    B. Beneficence vs. Nonmaleficence
    C. Fidelity
    D. Justice

B. Beneficence vs. Nonmaleficence

98. Situational: A nurse posts patient information on social media. This is a violation of:
    A. Veracity
    B. Confidentiality and privacy
    C. Fidelity
    D. Justice

B. Confidentiality and privacy

99. Situational: A nurse administers a medication without explaining its purpose. This violates:
    A. Autonomy and informed consent
    B. Fidelity
    C. Justice
    D. Confidentiality

A. Autonomy and informed consent

100. Situational: The nurse follows a physician’s order that is harmful without questioning. She may be charged with:
     A. Obedience
     B. Negligence and liability
     C. Fidelity
     D. Autonomy

B. Negligence and liability