Medical Technology Licensure Examination Review

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Flashcards for review of Medical Technology concepts specifically focused on Bacteriology, Mycology, Virology, and Parasitology related to the licensure examination.

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46 Terms

1
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The process used to detect a person's blood type by using anti sera with known antigen is called __.

Forward grouping.

2
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The most common blood group is __.

O+.

3
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In the Rh system, the genotype —/— represents __.

Rh null.

4
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Testing for Rh antigens and antibodies differs from ABO testing because __.

ABO reactions are primarily due to IgM and usually occur at room temperature; Rh antibodies are IgG and agglutination usually requires a 37C incubation.

5
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When the forward and reverse typing do not match, this is termed __.

ABO discrepancy.

6
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The antibody that reacts best at a pH of 6.5 is __.

Anti M.

7
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Individuals with U phenotype lack __.

GYPA.

8
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The most common antibody encountered in blood bank is __.

Anti-K.

9
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The lucky 13th blood group system is known as __.

Scianna.

10
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Blood group antigens are expressed in a __ manner.

Codominant.

11
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An O blood type offspring is not possible from an AO and BO mating because __.

All types are possible.

12
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A blood donor with a body temperature of _ C would be deferred.

37.8.

13
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During a donation if a donor suddenly feels anxious, __ is the best action.

Stop the bleeding and reassure the donor.

14
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If a donor recently returned from Palawan and wants to donate blood, he may be deferred because __.

He probably got bitten by a malaria-carrying mosquito.

15
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Permanent deferral reasons include __.

History of drugs, hemophiliacs, and present infection of STI.

16
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The first action when a request for pretransfusion testing arrives is to __.

Check the records for prior type and screen results.

17
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The best action when a unit of PRBC needs to be returned after 30 minutes is __.

Dispose the unit inside the red plastic bag and do the necessary paperwork.

18
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The blood type for an autologous donation is __.

Autologous donation.

19
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Fresh frozen blood (FWB) should be stored at __ C.

1-6.

20
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The anticoagulant preservatives ACD-A and CPDA-1 have storage times of __ days.

25 and 35.

21
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When RBCs are stored and there’s a shift to the left, this means that the hemoglobin-oxygen affinity __.

Increases, owing to a decrease in 2,3-DPG.

22
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A D-negative woman with a D-positive infant shows signs of __ if there is a massive fetomaternal hemorrhage.

A mixed-field reaction microscopically.

23
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The minimum interval allowed between plateletpheresis collection procedures is __.

2 days.

24
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A patient experiencing febrile reactions to transfusions should receive __.

Leukocyte reduced red cells.

25
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In component preparation, the first thing to do when separating FFP is __.

Get a satellite bag and connect it.

26
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An aliquot of PRBC for a patient should be __ cc.

50.

27
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The FDA changed the shelf life of platelet storage from 7 days back to 5 days because __.

Increased reports of septic transfusion reactions.

28
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The best assay for Transfusion Associated Circulatory Overload is __.

N-terminal Pro-BNP.

29
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An individual with a PRBC transfusion who develops jaundice most likely has __.

Acute hepatitis B.

30
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The type of test used to confirm HIV after a positive rapid test is __.

Western blot.

31
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The patient with a weak D test indicates __.

A mixed-field reaction.

32
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The immunodominant sugar for blood group A specificity is __.

N-acetyl-D-galactosamine.

33
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During hemolytic anemia classification, the test used is __.

DAT.

34
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In HDFN, the antibody capable of crossing the placenta is __.

IgG.

35
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The color of light used in phototherapy for jaundice is __.

Blue.

36
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How frequent do we calibrate centrifuges in blood banks? __.

Yearly.

37
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The first person to study the body’s response to foreign substances was __.

Edward Jenner.

38
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The primary purpose of T cells is __ in cell-mediated immunity.

To stimulate other cells.

39
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All C1 subunits are included except __.

C1b.

40
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Tests like the Flow PRA test are used to detect __.

Anti-HLA antibodies.

41
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The bacteria that utilizes the host’s ATP for energy can be __.

Chlamydia.

42
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A patient with Lyme disease would have antibodies to __.

Outer surface protein C.

43
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In acute hepatitis B infections, the first marker to appear is __.

HBsAg.

44
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The treponemal antigen test for syphilis is __.

FTA-ABS.

45
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The distinction between ASO test and RF test lies in that __.

ASO test detects rheumatic fever, RF detects rheumatoid arthritis.

46
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The serological test related to detecting Cryptococcus neoformans is __.

Latex Particle Agglutination Antigen Test.