Final exam review

what areas are considered blind spots for horses

directly between their eyes on the forehead, directly behind them, directly below their nose

what is the term for a baby horse that is no longer nursing

weanling

what is the term for a female parent of a horse

dam

what is the term for a intact male donkey

jack

what is the term for a offspring of a female horse and a male donkey

mule

what is the term for a offspring of a female donkey and a male horse

Hinny

what is the term for a female donkey

jenny

what is the term for a male parent of a horse

sirei

what are alpha 2 agonists that can be used on a horse

xylazine, detomidine

what are opioids that can be used on horses

butorphanol, morphine

what are tranquilizer that can be used on horses

acepromazine

what are hypnotics that can be used on horses

Diazepam

where in the digestive tract does fermentation occur

cecum

what is the equine vertebral formula

C7, T18, L6, S5, Cy15-21

what is the most common arrhythmia found in horses

second degree AV block

what could cause a CRT of 3 seconds

hypotension, hypovolemia, dehydration

upon auscultating the LLQ, you appreciate what sounds like waves at the beach. this could indicate a build up of what in the GI tract

sand

what can be heard in the 4 quadrants during abdominal auscultation

RUQ: base of cecum

LUQ: small intestine

RLQ: right ventral colon

LLQ: left ventral colon

what is a possible cause of a yellow MM

fasting hyperbilirubinemia

what is a possible cause of a blanched/white MM

hemorrhage

what is a possible cause of red/purple MM

endotoxemia

what is a possible cause of brown MM

red maple leaf toxicosis

what are the best sites for obtaining a pulse rate

transverse facial artery, submandibular artery

what is the ‘bean’

smegma buildup within the urethral diverticulum of a gelding

horse dental formula

2(13/3, C0-1/0-1, PM3-4/3, M3/3) = 40-42

what kind of teeth do horses have

hypsodont teeth

what kind of teeth do foals have

deciduous teeth

what are cups in relation to equine teeth

infolding of enamel that decrease with age

when it comes to aging horses, the ________ _______ appears near the gum line on the lateral surface of the _______ _____ _______ at approximately ___ ____ of age

Galvayne’s Groove, upper third incisor, 10 years

an alteration of the horse’s gait, attitude or performance is defined as

lameness

During an In motion evaluation you notice has an uneven gait. It appears their head bobs downward when stepping on its right front. This could indicate a problem with which limb?

left front

what is the function of a flexion test?

accentuates pain and localizes lameness

what are some parts of an ophthalmic exam

Maze Test, Dazzle reflex, Menace Response

what are the equine core vaccines

EEE, WEE, VEE; rabies; tetanus; west nile virus

what are the three sites that IM injections can be administered

semimembranousus/tendinosis, triangle of the neck, pectoral

what does the white line represent

nuchal ligament

what does the green line represent

cervical vertebrae

what does the red line represent

scapula

what are the most common sites for equine venipuncture

jugular vein, transverse facial venous sinus

when giving an IV injections, it is important to position the needle in the _____ ____ of the jugular vein. This is due to is close proximity to the ______ _______ on the ______ aspect of the neck.

cranial 1/3, carotid artery, caudal

what do you call the system set up on the horse that allows continuous administration of topical medication to the eye?

subpalpebral lavage sytem

what are normal findings in urine testing

mucus strands, calcium carbonate crystals, USG of 1.020-1.050

what is urine coloration

pale to dark yellow

what could bright red urine mean

hematuria

what could brownish red urine mean

myoglobinuria

what could pinkish red urine mean

hemoglobinuria

what is the sample collected during an arthrocentesis

synovial fluid

what is the sample collected during a cystocentesis

urine

what is the sample collected during an abdominocentesis

peritoneal fluid

what is the sample collected during a spinal tap

CSF

what is the sample collected during an apheresis

bone marrow/stem cells

what is the sample collected during a bronchoalveolar lavage

upper respiratory samples

a belly tap is performed to obtain ______ _______. If the sample is a ______ ____ color, it indicates ischemia or necrosis. If there is an intestinal rupture there may be _____ present in the sample

peritoneal fluid, red/brown, feed

define laceration

torn or ragged wound of varying degree of damage

define puncture wound

sharp object passes through skin into underlying tissues

define complicated wound

wound involving multiple structures and tissues

define contusion

skin injury that includes bruising

define abrasion

area of the body surface denuded of skin or mucous membrane by some abnormal mechanical process

define incised wound

skin edges are cleanly cut by a sharp object

what are the degrees of contamination of a wound from least to most infected

clean, clean-contaminated, contaminated, infected

layers of Robert Jones bandage in order

primary layer: telfa, kling

secondary layer: cast padding/sheet cotton, brown gauze

third layer: vet wrap, elastikon

what happens in the inflammatory/Debridement phase of wound healing

1-3 days post injury, WBCs enter area and attack extracellular bacteria, fibric clot formation to help with hemostasis

what happens in the proliferative/repair phase of wound repair

3 days to 1-3 weeks, granulation tissue, fibroblasts begin to appear which synthesizes collagen

what is the maturation phase of wound healing

3 weeks - fully healed, epithelialization and contraction, collagen fibers cross-link and reorient along lines of tension

what is the proper form to administrate an IN injection

central and ventral

what is the proper form to administrate an IM injection

insert perpendicular to site

what is the proper form to administrate an IV injection

align parallel to site and insert at a 45 degree angle

what is the proper form to administrate a PO injection

insert at diastema and aim caudally

what is the proper form to administrate SQ injections

align parallel to site and tent skin to insert superficially

what tool is A

hoof nippers

what tool is B

hoof rasp

what tool is C

hoof knife

what gauge catheter is used in the horse

14 ga 5 ½ in

what is the maintenance fluid requirement for an adult horse

50 ml/kg/day

what is one reason why the IVC insertion site should be monitored Q6 hours

patency

what is a puffy swelling that occurs on either side of the tendons above the fetlock

wind puff

what is osteoarthritis of the joints of the pastern

ringbone

what is enlarged, stretched DDFT behind the cannon

bowed tendon

what is a bony growth usually on medial and distal portion of the hock

bone spavin

what is inflammation or degradation of the distal sesamoid and surrounding tissues

navicular disease

what is a soft swelling occurring on the medial part of hock

bog spavin

what is atrophy of single muscle or group of muscles

sweeney

what is inflammation of the subcutaneous bursa

capped elbow/capped hock

what are bony deposits on the upper part of the cannon

splints

what is ossification of the lateral cartilages

sidebones

what is separation of hoof wall from laminae at the white line

white line disease/seedy toe

what is failure of the interdigitation of the laminae between hoof wall and coffin bone

laminitis

what happens in laminitis cases

separation of the hoof wall laminae from the sensitive laminae, chronic cases may have slipper foot or rings on the hoof fall, heel to toe gait

what happens in cases of navicular disease

due to compression of the bone under the deep digital flexor and short pastern, toe heel gait

what non-infectious disease, secondary to any inflammatory process, would cause separation of the hoof wall and coffin bone

laminitis

what happens in hyperkalemic periodic paralysis cases

prevents muscle spasms and weakness due to sodium channel leaking, episodes tend to occur when there is lack of exercise, treatment and prevention includes exercise, get them walking and moving

what happens in Exertional Rhabdomyolysis cases

also called Monday Morning Sickness, episodes tend to occur after physical activity, treatment includes stop exercise, don’t force to walk and analgesia, severe cases can have severe muscle necrosis and myoglobinuria

what condition would cause insulin resistance, having a BCS >6; even when on diet restriction and have a cresty neck

Equine Metabolic Syndrome

what condition would cause an increase in ACTH, have a cresty neck and hirsutism (curly coat)

PPID/Cushings Disease

what happens in Choke

coughing, nasal discharge with feed particles, food lodged in esophagus

what happens in Exercise Induced Pulmonary hemorrhage (EIPH)

can see epistaxis, coughing, bronchoalveolar lavage cytology shows hemosiderin within macrophages, due to excessive negative pressure during inhalation

what happens during Recurrent Airway Obstruction

narrowing of the bronchi, tends to be triggered by allergies dust pollens, heave line, cough

what bacteria causes pigeon fever

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

what bacteria causes thrush

Fusobacterium necrophorum

what bacteria causes strangles

Streptococcus equi