Workday - Data Loading for Implementers (incl. Financial Implementers)

DLI

1-1) You have data staged and ready to deploy. What tenant will use this data post-migration?

A. GMS tenant

B. agpbaseload tenant

C. Customer Central tenant

D. AMU tenant

B. agpbaseload tenant

DLI

1-2) You need to prepare data for loading. What tenant functions as a staging hub to manage and access data for migration?

A. GMS tenant

B. agpbaseload tenant

C. Customer Central tenant

D. Sandbox tenant

C. Customer Central tenant

DLI

1-3) You need to research the behaviors of a staffing business process in a tenant prior to your first onsite visit. What tenant do you use for this research?

A. GMS tenant

B. agpbaseload tenant

C. Customer Central tenant

D. Sandbox tenant

A. GMS tenant

DLI

2-1) What is the source of factory default data for Foundation Recipes and Configuration Catalog?

A. WDSetup

B. Customer Central

C. agpbaseload

D. Implementation Suite

A. WDSetup

DLI

2-2) What is the last stage for loading data types?

A. Plan

B. Architect & Configure

C. Test

D. Deploy

B. Architect & Configure

DLI

2-3) What data type defines the structure of Workday, follows common standards, and is generic for all customers?

A. Operational Data

B. Transaction Data

C. Factory Default Data

D. Setup Data

D. Setup Data

DLI

2-4) What data type defines customer setup data and is common to transactional data?

A. Operational Data

B. Configuration Data

C. Factory Default Data

D. Setup Data

A. Operational Data

DLI

3-1) You are working with a customer during the deployment phase of implementation, and they are sending you updated files.

How should the customer send you the updated information?

A. Email

B. Workday Drive

C. sFTP

D. fax

C. sFTP

DLI

3-2) What statement best describes a VCR environment?

A. A VCR environment permits open access to email or print.

B. A VCR environment prohibits clipboard redirection to the local laptop.

C. A VCR environment permits two-way drive mapping.

D. A VCR environment prohibits the ability to email or print.

B. A VCR environment prohibits clipboard redirection to the local laptop.

or

D. A VCR environment prohibits the ability to email or print.

DLI

3-3) What entity is a Purgeable Data Type?

A. Job Family Groups

B. Job Profiles

C. Job Family

D. Job Applications

D. Job Applications

DLI

4-1) What ID does Workday generate automatically on all customer data that provides a globally unique identifier across all Workday environments?

A. Instance ID

B. Workday ID

C. Reference ID

D. External ID

B. Workday ID

DLI

4-2) What ID identifies specific instances of a business object in Workday and remains constant across all Workday environments?

A. Instance ID

B. Workday ID

C. Reference ID

D. External ID

C. Reference ID

DLI

4-3) What ID specifies the system ID and the business object instance?

A. Instance ID

B. Workday ID

C. Reference ID

D. External ID

A. Instance ID

DLI

4-4) What report do you use to view Reference IDs and WIDs?

A. View References IDs

B. Integrations IDs

C. Employee Custom IDs

D. View Blank Reference IDs

B. Integrations IDs

DLI

5-1) What report can you use to verify a successful location hierarchies advanced load?

A. Location Lookup

B. Organization Summary

C. Location Directory Map

D. Identifier Summary

B. Organization Summary

DLI

5-2) What can you do with data when using an Advanced Load deployment tool?

A. Import, manipulate, and update data.

B. Import, export, manipulate, and update data.

C. Import data only.

D. Export data only.

B. Import, export, manipulate, and update data.

DLI

5-3) You submitted data via an Advanced Load. Workday notifies you that an error occurred. What report do you run to troubleshoot the error?

A. Organization Summary

B. View Supervisory Organizations

C. Integration IDs

D. Process Monitor

D. Process Monitor

DLI

5-4) You are preparing an advanced load template to load supervisory organizations into your foundation tenant, but the Workday ID is missing from the template. Which report can you run on your foundation tenant to get the Workday ID for the organization visibility?

A. Organization Summary

B. View References IDs

C. Integration IDs

D. Process Monitor

C. Integration IDs

DLI

6-1) What task do you use to modify inbound and outbound EIBs?

A. Create EIB

B. Edit EIB

C. Repair Additional Data

D. Create Custom Source Extension Data

B. Edit EIB

DLI

6-2) What can you do with data when using an iLoad deployment tool?

A. Import, manipulate, and update data.

B. Import, export, manipulate, and update data.

C. Import and export data only.

D. Import data only.

C. Import and export data only.

DLI

6-3) What action can you take on an implementation suite?

A. You can optimize loading into a target tenant.

B. You can migrate a copy of the implementation suite into a target tenant.

C. You can run the implementation suite’s contents.

D. You can view only the implementation suite’s

B. You can migrate a copy of the implementation suite into a target tenant.

DLI

7-1) What report can you run to view organizations for which there are errors or warnings?

A. Organization Exception Audit Report

B. Audit Trail Report

C. Business Process Exception Audit

D. Organization Health

A. Organization Exception Audit Report

DLI

7-2) What report can you run to view for business site errors?

A. Business Process Exception Audit

B. Organization Exception Audit

C. Audit Locations for Membership in Organizations

D. Directory by Location - Audit Report

C. Audit Locations for Membership in Organizations

DLI

7-3) You are running the Business Process Exception Audit Report, and it shows critical error messages for your Hire business process. One of the error messages says, “The HR Partner Group is not allowed to perform step i (review employee hire)”

How will you resolve the error?

A. Edit the BP Security Policy to add the HR Partner Group to the review employee hire task.

B. Edit the staffing model in your supervisory organization.

C. Assign the HR Partner Role to a supervisory organization.

D. Add an Approve step to your

A. Edit the BP Security Policy to add the HR Partner Group to the review employee hire task.

Source of factory default data for Foundation Recipes and Configuration Catalog

WDSetup

An implementation tenant that serves as a central hub to secure access to data migration tools

Customer Central

The last deployment stage for loading data types

Architect and Configure

The first deployment stage and initialization of the Foundation tenant

Plan

A tool that migrates selected data between tenants

Object Transporter (OX)

A tool that moves data from WDSetup in mass to a new Implementation tenant

Foundation Recipe

Defines the structure of Workday; follows common standards and is generic for all customers.

Setup Data

Defines behavior in Workday; changes based on customer requirements.

Configuration Data

Specific to the customer; commonly used in transaction data

Operational Data

Data type that represents past events

Transaction Data

A cohesive set of standard configuration values based on product design

Factory Default Data

DLFI

1-1) Which tenant is an auto-provisioned tenant that contains access to deployment tools?

A. Production

B. Customer Central

C. Baseload

D. Unified

B. Customer Central

DLFI

1-2) Which deployment tool enables you to build simple inbound and outbound integrations between Workday and external endpoints?

A. Advanced Load

B. iLoad

C. Enterprise Interface Builder (EIB)

D. Foundation Recipes

C. Enterprise Interface Builder (EIB)

DLFI

2-1) What organization type do you use to hold financial transactions, budgets, and workers?

A Company

B. Fund

C. Business Unit

D. Cost Center

D. Cost Center

DLFI

2-2) Which Workday-delivered role-based security group can open and close ledger periods?

A. Common Finance Operations Lead

B. Accountant

C. Accounts Payable Data Entry Specialist

D. Finance Administrator

A. Common Finance Operations Lead

DLFI

3-1) True or False?

With Financials First deployments, the goal is to configure and load the minimum HCM setup and data Required to support Financials First.

True

DLFI

3-2) True or False?

You cannot assign a fiscal schedule to a company without first creating ledger years and ledger periods.

False

DLFI

4-1) Which of the following areas can you manage from the Edit Tenant Setup - Financials task? (Select three correct answers.)

A. Procurement Options

B. Customer Central

C. Business Document Sequence IDs

D. Journal Options

E. Location Services

A. Procurement Options

C. Business Document Sequence IDs

D. Journal Options

DLFI

4-2) Which of the following are common tenant validation tasks? (Select three correct answers.)

A. Enable all emails for all environments.

B. Activate any non-default business processes you created.

C. Run audit reports.

D. Ensure organization configurations align with customer requirements.

E. Ensure security assignments align with customer requirements.

C. Run audit reports.

D. Ensure organization configurations align with customer requirements.

E. Ensure security assignments align with customer requirements.

What do you call a unique instance of the Workday system?

A Tenant

Delivery Assurance Quiz:

What is the purpose of a product checkpoint?

A. Ensure that the product is built to customer specifications

B. Test the knowledge of the Project Consultant

C. For the DA Consultant to coach the project team on configuration

D. Validate that the product is appropriately configured to run in production

D. Validate that the product is appropriately configured to run in production

Delivery Assurance Quiz:

How often should the Project Team download a new template from the DA Dashboard?

A. After each release

B. At the start of a new project

C. Once a year

D. When they hear changes have been made

B. At the start of a new project

Delivery Assurance Quiz:

If there is an escalation related to a Product issue, what should the Project Team use as their initial escalation path?

A. Open an ISE Escalation case

B. Email the DA Manager

C. Open a Service Care Case

D. Issue Resolution Guide

D. Issue Resolution Guide

Delivery Assurance Quiz:

What is the mission of Delivery Assurance?

A. To provide expertise and tools developed from prior Workday projects to identify potential risks early in the deployment lifecycle.

B. To ensure that all Configuration is built according to customer requirements before going live.

C. To verify that the tenant will not encounter any performance issues post of live.

D. To provide additional resources for the deployment team to address how to configure the tenant

A. To provide expertise and tools developed from prior Workday projects to identify potential risks early in the deployment lifecycle.

Delivery Assurance Quiz:

Who initially reviews Compliance checkpoints?

A. The DA Manager

B. The DA Support Team

C. The DA Consultant

D. The DA Integration Manager

B. The DA Support Team

Delivery Assurance Quiz:

Whose responsibility is it to load DART?

A. The DA Consultant

B. The DA Manager

C. The Project Team

D. The ISE - DA Team

C. The Project Team

Delivery Assurance Quiz:

Where should you go to find DA related content including recent updates, the latest templates, and FAQs?

A. The DA Dashboard

B. Open a Service Care Case

C. The DA Collaboration Group

D. Workspace

A. The DA Dashboard

Delivery Assurance Quiz:

If you encounter a project issues that needs to be escalated, what should you do?

A. Open an ISE Escalation Case

B. Follow the Issue Resolution Guide

C. Create a Group Post in the DA Collaboration Group

D. Follow the deployment escalation process

D. Follow the deployment escalation process

Delivery Assurance Quiz:

What are the three types of delivery assurance checkpoints?

A. Project Checkpoints, Complex Checkpoints, Integration Checkpoints

B. Project Checkpoints, Product Checkpoints, Integration Checkpoints

C. Product Checkpoints, Complex Checkpoints, Integration Checkpoints

D. Project Checkpoints, Manual Checkpoints, Automated Checkpoints

B. Project Checkpoints, Product Checkpoints, Integration Checkpoints

Delivery Assurance Quiz:

When should DART be used?

A. Only if the DA Consultant sees the need

B. Just before the Final Review

C. Immediately following the Prototype Review

D. Early and often throughout the deployment

D. Early and often throughout the deployment

Practice Quiz:

Which tasks can you perform with the customer central tenant? (Choose 2)

A. Load customer data using the iLoad tool

B. Store confidential employee information and sensitive business information

C. Migrate data from one of the Workday foundry tenants into a customer’s tenant

D. Manage user access to both a customer’s tenants and the deployment tools

C. Migrate data from one of the Workday foundry tenants into a customer’s tenant

D. Manage user access to both a customer’s tenants and the deployment tools

The Customer Central tenant can orchestrate data migration from tenant to tenant. Customer Central user accounts can be set up in Customer Central to ensure adherence to the customer tenant access policies. A Customer Central user will be granted access to the deployment tools for the corresponding implementation tenants.

Practice Quiz:

You are a project manager for a Workday deployment and your customer has created a customer central administrator account for you. Which tasks are your responsibilities? (Choose 2)

A. Manage which tenants the customer central users may use the tools against

B. Configure customer central tenant setup related to security policies.

C. Authorize which tenants fall under the customer central umbrella

D. Manage the opt-in features capabilities available specifically in customer central

A. Manage which tenants the customer central users may use the tools against

C. Authorize which tenants fall under the customer central umbrella

The Customer Central Administrator can create user accounts and grant access to the customer tenant. They can also grant user access to the deployment tools. The Customer Central Administrator can define the purpose of each implementation tenant and assign user access to the Implementation tenants.

Practice Quiz:

Which are the responsibilities of the customer central security administrator? (Choose 2)

A. Seed the initial foundation tenant with factory default data

B. Migrate predefined configuration sets from WDSetup into the customer’s tenant

C. Configure customer central tenant setup related to security policies

D. Unlock customer central user accounts and monitor sing-in activity

C. Configure customer central tenant setup related to security policies

D. Unlock customer central user accounts and monitor sing-in activity

The Customer Central Security Administrator manages Customer Central accounts and its login access. The Customer Central Security Administrator can configure security and authentication policies for the Customer Central tenant to ensure it adheres to customer policies.

Practice Quiz:

Your client asks you to explain the difference between the Sandbox and Sandbox Preview tenants.

How do you differentiate these tenants?

A. The Sandbox tenant is the environment where a client stores their live data, but the Sandbox Preview tenant includes added functionality available in the upcoming releases.

B. The Sandbox and Sandbox Preview tenants are copies of the production tenant, but the Sandbox tenant includes added functionality available in the upcoming releases.

C. The Sandbox and Sandbox Preview tenants are copies of the production tenant, but the Sandbox Preview tenant includes added functionality available in upcoming releases.

D. The Sandbox tenant is a copy of the Production tenant, but the Sandbox Preview tenant is the environment where a client stores their live data.

C. The Sandbox and Sandbox Preview tenants are copies of the production tenant, but the Sandbox Preview tenant includes added functionality available in upcoming releases.

The Sandbox tenant is a copy of the data from the Production tenant. it allows administrators and consultants to develop and test new features, customizations, and configurations, and configurations before deploying into the main Production tenant.

Practice Quiz:

Your customer deployed Workday Financial Management.

What tenant should they use to record a journal for Q1 results?

A. Sandbox Preview

B. Baseload

C. Production

D. Sandbox

C. Production

The Production tenant is the environment which you manage and store a customer’s live, active data.

Practice Quiz:

Your client asks what data loading tool to use for a simple inbound integration for journal entries. What do you recommend?

A. iLoad

B. Object Transporter

C. Advanced Load

D. EIB

D. EIB

EIB is an integration tool that enables you to create simple inbound and outbound integrations between Workday and external endpoints.

Practice Quiz:

You are configuring user-based security for your customer’s foundation tenant. Your customer communicates that their Workday analyst will validate the foundation tenant build.

At a minimum, which security groups should you assign to this analyst?

(Choose 3)

A. Customer Administrator

B. Organization Administrator

C. Business Process Administrator

D. Security Administrator

E. Supplier Administrator

B. Organization Administrator

C. Business Process Administrator

D. Security Administrator

Org admin can create and maintain all organization setup data and orgs (org types and subtypes, companies, cost centers, regions)

BP admin will be required to validate and configure all Workday-delivered default BP definitions

Sec Admin is required for the WD analyst to review WD security groups and setup a new security group if necessary

Practice Quiz:

What are the objectives of using the Foundation Data Model (FDM)? (Choose 2)

A. To establish a scalable, future-proof application

B. To model dimensions based on reporting needs

C. To create different sets of companies for different functional areas

D. To finalize design for the client’s production tenant

A. To establish a scalable, future-proof application

B. To model dimensions based on reporting needs

The FDM is a comprehensive design used across various domains such as HCM, Payroll, Compensation, Supply Chain, Planning, and Financials. It serves as the foundational framework for Workday transaction processing and reporting.

Practice Quiz:

Which ledger statuses allow accounting journal entries? (Choose 2)

A. Created

B. Not Available

C. Close in Progress

D. Open

C. Close in Progress

D. Open

Practice Quiz:

You are a Workday consultant loading three account sets for your client: Standard, Workday, and Conversion. The Conversion account set includes the following ledger accounts: AP Conversion, Cash Conversion, AR Conversions, and Debt Conversion.

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

B. 4

Practice Quiz:

You are working on a Workday Financials Management deployment and are preparing to load sales items for your client. What object does Workday require before you can load sales items?

A. Revenue Category

B. Unit of Measure

C. Default Unit Price

D. Tax Applicability

A. Revenue Category

Practice Quiz:

Your client asks if the Finance Executive can run the Fix Operational Journals with Errors task.

What do you use to determine if additional roles are required for the Advanced Load template?

A. View assignable Roles task

B. Fix Operational Journals with Error task

C. Maintain Assignable Roels task

D. View Security for Securable Item Report

D. View Security for Securable Item Report

The View Security for Securable Item Report provides information regarding the security group permitted to view or modify the secured item.

Practice Quiz:

You are a consultant loading role assignments for Company A and need to make some changes to your Advanced Load template to meet your client’s requirements. Your client requires a role that can open and close ledger periods.

What is your next step?

A. Do not add a role to the template. The Finance Exec can open and close ledger periods

B. Add the Common Finance Operations Lead role to the template

C. Add the Report Writer role to the template.

D. Do not add a role to the template. The Accountant can open and close ledger periods.

B. Add the Common Finance Operations Lead role to the template

Practice Quiz:

You are a consultant loading role assignments for Company A and need to make some changes to your Advanced Load template to meet your client’s requirements.

Your client requires a role to perform contract billing functions and create customer invoices. Your client does not want this role to create customer payments or deposits.

What is your next step?

A. Add the Customer billing Specialist role to the template

B. Add the Accounts Receivable Analyst role to the template

C. Do not add a role to the template. Teh Accountant can perform contract billing functions.

D. Do not add a role to the template. The Accounts Payable Data Entry Specialist can perform contract billing functions.

A. Add the Customer billing Specialist role to the template

Practice Quiz:

You create a monthly utility invoice for the US - Southeast region using the spend category Gas & Electric - consumption.

Based on the current Spend account posting rule configuration, where will this invoice’s journal post?

A. 7900

B. 7200

C. 6300

D. 8600

C. 6300

Practice Quiz:

You create a monthly utility invoice for the US - West region using the spend category Gas & Electric.

Based on the current Spend account posting rule configuration, where will this invoice’s journal post?

A. 7900

B. 8600

C. 7200

D. 6300

A. 7900

Since none of the posting rule conditions specified in the Spend Rule are met, the invoice journal will post to the default ledger account 7900

Practice Quiz:

You are a consultant loading account sets for a client using the Advanced Load tool.

After you import the file, you receive a validation error displaying “Missing Value: Account Set Reference ID type” for Corporate EMEA.

Based on the template’s current configuration, what triggered the error?

A. Corporate EMEA does not display a reference ID value in the Account Set Reference ID column

B. Corporate EMEA does not include that ledger account

C. Corporate EMEA does not display a reference ID type in the Account Set Reference ID type column

D. Corporate EMEA does not display “TRUE” in the Chart of Accounts column

C. Corporate EMEA does not display a reference ID type in the Account Set Reference ID type column

Practice Quiz:

You are a consultant loading account sets for a client using the Advanced Load tool.

What account set will the client assign for its company accounting details?

A. Corporate HQ

B. Corporate UK

C. Corporate EMEA

D. Corporate London

B. Corporate UK

Practice Quiz:

What task do you use to configure the default time zone of a tenant?

A. Edit Tenant Setup - System

B. Edit Tenant Setup - Notifications

C. Edit Tenant Setup - Financials

D. Edit Tenant Setup - Global

A. Edit Tenant Setup - System

Practice Quiz:

You complete the foundation tenant build and your client confirms their design through testing. Your client identifies instances that exist within the current tenant build that are out of scope. You discover some of these instances you cannot permanently delete from the tenant.

What action should you take on the instances you cannot delete?

A. Disable or redirect email notifications regarding the related business objects.

B. Update the reference ID to Do Not Use (DNU) for the selected items

C. Mark the instances as Do Not Use (DNU) and inactivate the instances if possible.

D. Run an audit report to identify a list of the instances

C. Mark the instances as Do Not Use (DNU) and inactivate the instances if possible.

For any out-of-scope instances that should not migrate to the next tenant build, remove them from any related configurations and delete them if possible. If you cannot delete the instances, mark it as DNU to visually identify it and inactive it.