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D. Receptor potential
The first thing that is produced with a vibratory stimulus applied to a Pacinian corpuscle is the production of a/an:
A. Excitatory post-synaptic potential
B. Inhibitory post-synaptic potential
C. Endplate potential
D. Receptor potential
B. Fast pain (also "first" pain) and C-fibers
Which of the following is INCORRECTLY paired:
A. Neospinothalamic tract and A-delta fibers
B. Fast pain (also "first" pain) and C-fibers
C. Paleospinothalamic tract and C-fibers
D. Slow pain (also "second" pain) and C fibers
C. Ventral posteromedial nucleus (VPM)/ ventral posterolateral nucleus (VPL)
Somatosensory signals pass through the following specific thalamic relay nucleus:
A. Medial geniculate nucleus (MGN)
B. Lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN)
C. Ventral posteromedial nucleus (VPM)/ ventral posterolateral nucleus (VPL)
D. Ventral lateral nucleus (VL) of the thalamus
A. A-beta fibers
What type of sensory fibers conduct very fast signals from Pacinian corpuscles, merkel nerve endings, meissner's corpuscles, Ruffini endings?
A. A-beta fibers
B. A-gamma fibers
C. A-delta fibers
D. C fibers
B. Slow pain
This type of pain is mediated by C fibers, with patients experiencing a dull, intense, diffuse and unpleasant feeling:
A. Fast pain
B. Slow pain
C. First pain
D. Phantom pain
B. An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience
In contrast to nociception, pain is
A. A neutral, non-threatening experience
B. An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience
C. An unconscious sensory experience induced by damaging stimulus
D. Tuning fork
Vibratory sensation of a patient and the integrity of dorsal column-lemniscal pathway can be tested by use of stimuli applied by a:
A. Cotton swab
B. Pin
C. Caliper
D. Tuning fork
D. Ventral and lateral spinothalamic tract
A patient, after falling on his back, has been found to have diminished sensations for pain, temperature and crude touch using somatosensory tests. The following ascending pathways could be affected:
A. Corticospinal tract
B. Bulbospinal tract
C. Dorsal column-medial lemniscal pathway
D. Ventral and lateral spinothalamic tract
A. Interaction of non-pain afferents and pain afferents for pain modulation
Gate control theory involves:
A. Interaction of non-pain afferents and pain afferents for pain modulation
B. Descending tracts from the periaqueductal gray (PAG) for modulation of nociceptive transmission at the spinal level
C. Blockade of sodium channels of nociceptive fibers by lidocaine
D. Inactivation of voltage-gated sodium channels by tetrodotoxin
A. Pain control involving a descending modulation system arising from the brainstem
A major role for enkephalins and endorphins in the somatosensory system:
A. Pain control involving a descending modulation system arising from the brainstem
B. Principal spinal inhibitory neurotransmitter in the inverse stretch reflex
C. Principal excitatory neurotransmitters released by C-afferents
D. Inhibitory neurotransmitters in interneurons in the crossed extension, flexor reflex
A. Broca’s aphasia
A left hemispheric lesion which results in slow, slurred speech, while the patient retains the ability to understand other people’s speech. This may probably be a case of:
A. Broca’s aphasia
B. Wernicke’s aphasia
C. Expressive aprosodia
D. Sensory aprosodia
A. Difficulty to understand visual information, including printed words
A lesion in the left angular gyrus may result in:
A. Difficulty to understand visual information, including printed words
B. Prosopagnosia
C. Slow, slurred speech
D. Inability to understand what other people are saying
B. Fluent, abundant speech, but has no meaning
The following is a characteristic feature in patients with Wernicke’s aphasia:
A. Understanding visual and auditory information is normal, but speech is slurred and slow
B. Fluent, abundant speech, but has no meaning
C. Inability to recognize faces
D. Nonfluent speech, but language comprehension is normal
C. Destruction of commissural fibers through corpus callosotomy
Inter-hemispheric transfer of information is prevented with:
A. Bilateral hippocampal lesions
B. Prefrontal cortical lesions affecting the central executive functions of the brain
C. Destruction of commissural fibers through corpus callosotomy
D. Lesions in either the Broca’s area or Wernicke’s area
B. Right posterior frontal cortex
Expressive or motor aprosodia arises with lesions in the:
A. Right posterior parietal cortex
B. Right posterior frontal cortex
C. Left posterior frontal cortex
D. Left posterior parietal cortex
A. Right hemisphere damage, specifically in the right posterior parietal or right posterior parietal-temporal cortex
Hemi-neglect is often seen in majority of patients with:
A. Right hemisphere damage, specifically in the right posterior parietal or right posterior parietal-temporal cortex
B. Left hemisphere damage, specifically in the left posterior parietal or left posterior parietal-temporal cortex
C. Damage to the prefrontal cortex (the "chief executive" of the brain)
D. Lesions in the hippocampus
D. Inability to convert short-term memories to long term-memories
In the video lecture, it was demonstrated that Clive Wearing has extensive bilateral hippocampal lesions due to herpes viral encephalitis. These lesions were manifested as:
A. Slow, slurred speech
B. Fluent speech, but unable to comprehend other person’s speech
C. Anomic aphasia
D. Inability to convert short-term memories to long term-memories
A. Reducing the release of an excitatory neurotransmitter from a presynaptic nerve terminal
Habituation, as shown in experiments in invertebrates, is a neural process by which an organism responds to benign or neural stimulus by:
A. Reducing the release of an excitatory neurotransmitter from a presynaptic nerve terminal
B. Increasing the release of an excitatory neurotransmitter from a sensory neuron
C. Increasing the release of glycine and glutamate to excite NMDA receptors
D. Reducing the release of substance P from a pain fiber by way of enkephalinergic interneurons
C. Increasing synaptic contacts brought about by increased synthesis of synaptic proteins, resulting in enhanced synaptic transmission
Long-term sensitization, in contrast to short-term sensitization, is a neural process by which an organism responds to repetitive, threatening stimulus by this additional mechanism:
A. Reducing the release of an excitatory neurotransmitter from a presynaptic nerve terminal
B. Increasing the release of an excitatory neurotransmitter via the prolongation of the duration of an action potential in the presynaptic nerve terminal
C. Increasing synaptic contacts brought about by increased synthesis of synaptic proteins, resulting in enhanced synaptic transmission
D. Weakening of synaptic connections through dephosphorylation of synaptic proteins
D. Dephosphorylation of synaptic proteins to decrease synaptic transmission
Long-Term Depression (LDP) is different from Long-Term Potentiation (LTP) in that LDP relies on:
A. Phosphorylation of synaptic proteins to enhance synaptic transmission
B. Dephosphorylation of synaptic proteins to enhance synaptic transmission
C. Phosphorylation of synaptic proteins to decrease synaptic transmission
D. Dephosphorylation of synaptic proteins to decrease synaptic transmission
C. The final common pathway involves alpha motor neurons
Which of the following is true about the general property of a reflex?
A. The reflex arc has 4 components
B. There should always be an adequate response
C. The final common pathway involves alpha motor neurons
A. Muscle spindles, group Ia spindle afferents, dynamic nuclear bag, and alpha motor neurons.
What are the elements of the myotatic reflex?
A. Muscle spindles, group Ia spindle afferents, dynamic nuclear bag, and alpha motor neurons.
B. Golgi tendon organ, group Ib afferents, spinal inhibitory interneurons, and alpha motor neurons
C. Muscle spindles, group Ia spindle afferents, spinal excitatory interneurons, and alpha motor neurons.
C. Polysynaptic Reflex
Free nerve endings are sense organs for which type of reflex?
A. Stretch Reflex
B. Inverse Stretch Reflex
C. Polysynaptic Reflex
A. Stretch Reflex
Muscle stretch is the stimulus for which type of reflex
A. Stretch Reflex
B. Inverse Stretch Reflex
C. Polysynaptic Reflex
B. Inverse stretch reflex
The Golgi tendon organ is the sense organ for which type of reflex?
A. Stretch reflex
B. Inverse stretch reflex
C. Polysynaptic relfex
B. Group Ia sensory fibers originating in the muscle spindle, inhibitory interneuron, ipsilateral alpha motor neuron, and extrafusal fibers of the skeletal muscle.
What are the elements of the reciprocal innervation in stretch reflex?
A. Golgi tendon organ, group II afferent fibers, spinal inhibitory interneuron, ipsilateral alpha motor neuron, and intrafusal fibers of the skeletal muscle.
B. Group Ia sensory fibers originating in the muscle spindle, inhibitory interneuron, ipsilateral alpha motor neuron, and extrafusal fibers of the skeletal muscle.
C. Muscle spindle activating the group Ia sensory fibers, ipsilateral alpha motor neuron, and extrafusal fibers of the skeletal muscle.
B. Group III afferent nerves: polysynaptic reflex
Which is the correct pair?
A. Group Ia afferent nerves: disynaptic reflex
B. Group III afferent nerves: polysynaptic reflex
C. Group II afferent nerves: monosynaptic reflex
A. Muscle contraction is the response: monosynaptic reflex
Which is the correct pair?
A. Muscle contraction is the response: monosynaptic reflex
B. Muscle contraction is the response: disynaptic reflex
C. Muscle contraction is the stimulus: polysynaptic reflex
C. Relay information on length
Which is true of flower spray endings?
A. They are primary afferents
B. Attach to dynamic nuclear bag
C. Relay information on length
B. Supply dynamic nuclear bag and fibers
True of dynamic y-motor neurons.
A. Involved in the final common pathway
B. Supply dynamic nuclear bag and fibers
C. Measures 14 um in diameter
C. Rubrospinal tract
A 60-year-old lady woman was brought to the ER for loss of consciousness. On painful stimulation, all four limbs were extended. What descending pathway was transected?
A. Pontine reticulospinal tract
B. Tectospinal tract
C. Rubrospinal tract
B. Dopamine is excitatory to the striatum.
Which is true of the neurotransmitter released by the substantia nigra pars compacta in relation to the other components of the basal ganglia?
A. GABA is inhibitory to the thalamus.
B. Dopamine is excitatory to the striatum.
C. GABA is inhibitory to the striatum.
B. Supplementary motor area
Which of the following structures is active during "mental rehearsal" for a movement?
A. Primary motor cortex
B. Supplementary motor area
C. Primary somatosensory area
B. Pallidothalamic tract
Which pathway uses GABA as its main neurotransmitter?
A. Corticostriate tract
B. Pallidothalamic tract
C. Thalamostriate tract
C. Flocculonodular lobe
This cerebellar component helps orient the eyes during movement.
A. Vermis
B. Paravermis
C. Flocculonodular lobe
B. Cerebellar Purkinje cells, substantia nigra pars reticulata, globus pallidus interna
Which of the following neural substrates release GABA?
A. Cerebellar Purkinje cells, substantia nigra pars compacta, globus pallidus externa
B. Cerebellar Purkinje cells, substantia nigra pars reticulata, globus pallidus interna
C. Cerebellar granule cells, substantia nigra pars reticulata, globus pallidus externa
A. Damage to the striatum causes hyperkinetic movements
Which statement is true about Huntington’s disease?
A. Damage to the striatum causes hyperkinetic movements
B. Damage to the striatum causes hypokinetic movements
C. Damage to the substantia nigra pars compacta causes hypokinetic movements
C. Basal ganglia
Which neural substrate has a role in cognitive control of motor activity?
A. Premotor area
B. Cerebellum
C. Basal ganglia
A. Primary motor cortex
Which neural substrate has a role in executing movement?
A. Primary motor cortex
B. Red nucleus
C. Premotor area
A. The globus pallidus interna inhibits the thalamus
Which of the following is true of the indirect pathway?
A. The globus pallidus interna inhibits the thalamus
B. The globus pallidus externa inhibits the striatum
C. The striatum inhibits the globus pallidus externa