Control of Microbial Growth

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A set of practice flashcards covering key concepts of microbial growth control based on lecture notes.

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50 Terms

1
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What is antisepsis?

Reduction in the number of microorganisms and viruses on living tissue.

2
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Give an example of antiseptic use.

Use of iodine or alcohol to prepare skin for an injection.

3
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What is the definition of aseptic?

An environment or procedure free of pathogenic contaminants.

4
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What does the suffix -cide indicate?

The destruction of a type of microbe.

5
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Define degerming.

Removal of microbes by mechanical means.

6
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What is disinfection?

Destruction of most microorganisms and viruses on nonliving tissue.

7
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What does pasteurization achieve?

Destroys pathogens and reduces spoilage microorganisms in foods and beverages.

8
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Describe sanitization.

Removal of pathogens from objects to meet public health standards.

9
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What does the suffix -static refer to?

Inhibition but not complete destruction of a type of microbe.

10
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Define sterilization.

Destruction of all microorganisms and viruses in or on an object.

11
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What is microbial death?

Permanent loss of reproductive ability under ideal environmental conditions.

12
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What is the relationship between microbial death rate and conditions?

It is often constant for a microorganism under a particular set of conditions.

13
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How do antimicrobial agents act?

They alter cell walls and membranes or disrupt metabolism and reproduction.

14
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What happens when cell walls are damaged?

Cells burst because of osmotic effects.

15
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What is the primary action of nonenveloped viruses?

They have greater tolerance of harsh conditions.

16
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What can extreme heat or certain chemicals do to proteins?

They denature proteins.

17
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What does moist heat do in microbial control?

Disinfects, sanitizes, sterilizes, and pasteurizes.

18
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What is autoclaving?

Using pressure applied to boiling water to prevent steam from escaping.

19
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What is the flash pasteurization temperature?

72°C for 15 seconds.

20
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At what temperature does pasteurization of milk occur?

63°C for 30 minutes.

21
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What is one effect of high temperatures on microbes?

Denature proteins and disrupt the integrity of membranes.

22
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What is desiccation?

Drying that inhibits growth due to the removal of water.

23
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What does filtration achieve in microbial control?

Physical separation of microbes from air and liquids.

24
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What is the role of HEPA filters?

They provide high-efficiency particulate air filtration in biological safety cabinets.

25
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What factors affect the efficacy of antimicrobial methods?

Environmental conditions such as temperature and pH.

26
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What does lyophilization do?

Used for long-term preservation of microbial cultures.

27
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How does osmotic pressure inhibit microbial growth?

High concentrations of salt or sugar draw water out of microbial cells.

28
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What type of radiation is ionizing radiation?

Wavelengths shorter than 1 nm that eject electrons from atoms.

29
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What is UV radiation primarily used for?

Disinfection of air, transparent fluids, and surfaces.

30
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How do phenols work as antimicrobial agents?

They denature proteins and disrupt cell membranes.

31
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What are surfactants?

‘Surface active’ chemicals that reduce the surface tension of solvents.

32
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What is the primary action of alcohols as disinfectants?

Denature proteins and disrupt cytoplasmic membranes.

33
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What do aldehydes do in microbial control?

Cross-link functional groups to denature proteins and inactive nucleic acids.

34
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What defines a heavy metal as an antimicrobial agent?

Heavy-metal ions denature proteins and can be bacteriostatic.

35
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What do oxidizing agents accomplish?

They kill microbes by oxidation of microbial enzymes.

36
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Describe the action of gaseous agents.

Denature proteins and DNA by cross-linking functional groups.

37
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What is the use of enzymes in microbial control?

They act against microorganisms and can digest cell walls of bacteria.

38
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What are quats?

Quaternary ammonium compounds that act as low-level disinfectants.

39
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What do phenol coefficients measure?

The efficacy of disinfectants by comparing their effectiveness to phenol.

40
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What is the use-dilution test?

Evaluates disinfectant efficacy by examining growth after exposure.

41
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What characterizes the in-use test?

Swabbing surfaces before and after disinfectant application to check for bacterial growth.

42
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What is the purpose of conducting bacterial culture analysis?

To identify the source of infection in patients.

43
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What were the symptoms experienced by Marcella in the scenario?

Low fever, abdominal cramps, and diarrhea.

44
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What was suspected to be the source of Marcella's sickness?

Raw cheese from Johnson’s Dairy.

45
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What microbial pathogen was identified in Marcella's stool sample?

Campylobacter jejuni.

46
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Why do health officials request cessation of product sales from food vendors?

To prevent further outbreaks and identify the source of contamination.

47
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Why are Bacillus endospores used as sterility indicators?

They are exceptionally resistant to sterilization methods, ensuring effectiveness.

48
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What is one recommendation regarding household cleanliness?

A little dirt is okay; outdoor play can help train the immune system.

49
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How can pets contribute to children's immunity?

Dogs and cats may reduce allergy risk through early exposure.

50
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What is the primary action of using heavy metals in microbial control?

They denature proteins to exert bacteriostatic effects.