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what occurs in metaphase
nucleus dissolves, chromosomes align in center
cell cycle consists of
M phase and interphase
interphase G0
resting, not preparing to divide
interphase G1
cell growth, organelle synthesis, checkpoint control (Rb, p53)
interphase S phase:
DNA replication + histone synthesis (shanar replicates these hoes)
interphase G2
final growth, organelle replication, prep for mitosis
M checkpoint?
spindle check point; happens to ensure all chromosomes are properly attached to spindle fibers at their kinetochores and aligned at the metaphase plate before sister chromatids separate
Radiation therapy does what to dna and when
breaks dna strands; most susceptible in G2 and M phases
what type of tissue is most affected by radiation?
lymphoid
which chemotherapy drug causes mucositis, xerostomia?
methotrexate
why are many anticancer drugs teratogenic?
they target rapidly dividing cells, which includes fetal cells during development, causing congenital malformations or fetal death if given during pregnancy
teratogenic def
causing developmental abnormalities or birth defects in embryo/fetus
what is tumor lysis syndrome (TLS)
metabolic disturbance from rapid tumor cell death causing hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hyperuricemia, and hypocalcemia
what are alkylating agents in chemotherapy?
drugs that add alkyl groups to DNA, causing cross-linking, strand breaks, and inhibition of replication
give 2 examples of alkylating agents
cisplatin and cyclophosphamide
major toxicity of cisplatin?
nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
major toxicity of cyclophosphamide?
hemorrhagic cystitis
what drug class is methotrexate?
antimetabolite
MOA of methotrexate?
inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, blocking conversion of dihydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate → decreased thymidylate and purine synthesis → impaired DNA synthesis
which antitumor antibioitcs inhibit topoisomerase II?
doxorubicin, daunorubicin, etoposide, teniposide
MOA of topoisomerase II inhibitors?
prevent the re-ligation of double stranded DNA breaks by stabilizing the topoisomerase II-DNA complex
major toxicity of doxorubicin/daunorubicin (topoisomerase II inhibitors)
cardiac
major toxicity of etoposide and teniposide (topoisomerase II inhibitors)
myelosuppression, alopecia, GI upset
what drug class do vinca alkaloids belong to?
antimicrotubule agents
MOA of vinca alkaloids?
bind to beta-tubulin and inhibits microtubule assembly, preventing spindle formation and arresting the cell in metaphase
give 2 examples of vinca alkaloids
vincristine and vinblastine
major toxicity of vincristine?
neurotoxicity (peripheral neuropathy)
major toxicity of vinblastine?
bone marrow suppression
phases of cancer treatment
induction, consolidation, maintenance, remission
induction phase in cancer tx?
initial high-intensity therapy aimed at rapidly reducing tumor burden and inducing remission
what is consolidation phase in cancer tx?
additional tx given after remission to eliminate residual microscopic disease and prevent relapse
maintenance phase in cancer tx?
long term, lower intensity therapy to maintain remission and prevent recurrence
remission phase?
disappearance of signs and symptoms of cancer - can be complete or partial
which is true regarding chronic leukemia
a. They progress rapidly
b. Have shorter, more devastating clinical course than acute
c. Characterized by proliferations of lymphoid or hematopoietic cells that are more mature than those of acute
d. Constitute 75% of all leukemias
characterized by proliferations of lymphoid or hematopoietic cells that are more mature than those of acute
how do acute and chronic leukemias differ in cell maturity and disease course?
acute: immature precursor cells (blasts) released prematurely, rapid onset, aggressive course
chronic: cells have partial maturity, slower progression, often diagnosed incidentally during blood test
small pinpoint hemorrhages that occur on skin are
petechiae
common signs of thrombocytopenia
bleeding,
petechiae,
purpura,
ecchymosis (large bruises)
skin hemorrhages often become purple
petechiae vs purpura
petechiae <2mm
purpura >3mm
same except for size
Why might a patient diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) 5 years ago receive a third-generation cephalosporin for an infection?
these pts may have long-term residual immune compromise making them more susceptible to bacterial infections.
third-gen cephalosporins provide broad-spectrum coverage, esp against gram negative pathogens that can cause life threatening infections in immunocompromised individuals
third gen cephalosporins can be used for
gram neg or positive
penicillin is what type of antibiotic and moa?
beta-lactam; binds to and inactivates penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs) which are enzymes bacteria need to build their cell walls
whats beta-lactamase (penicillinase)
a bacterial defense enzyme that breaks the beta-lactam ring in regular penicillin, inactivating the drug. this is why many bacteria, especially staphylococcus aureus, are resistant to penicillin (able to infect us despite taking the drug)
scientists made penicillinase-resistant penicillins such as
methicillin, nafcillin, oxacillin
how do penicillinase-resistant penicillin (methicilin, nafcillin, oxacillin) work?
by chemically modifying the side chains so the beta-lactamase enzyme in bacteria cannot bind and break them.
this means these drugs can still kill bacteria that produce beta-lactamase- but theyre not immune to all forms of resistance. (ex: MRSA has altered PBPs so the drug can’t bind)
(basically
regular penicllin = beta lactamase breaks it
methicillin-type penicillin = beta lactamase cannot touch it)
which of the following antibiotics works by inhibiting cell wall synthesis?
tralosporin