MMSC436 - quiz 8 hormones III, MMSC436 Practice Quiz 5 Liver Functions Exam 2, MMSC 436 Quiz 6 Hormones I , MMSC436 Practice quiz 7 (Hormones II)

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171 Terms

1
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the TRH stimulation test is useful in differentiating hypothalamic hypothyroidism from:
A. hashimoto's thyroiditis
B. pituitary hypothyroidism
C. primary hypothyroidism
D. sub-clinical hypothyroidism

B. pituitary hypothyroidism

2
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True or false? when taken by a euthyroid individual, oral contraceptives will have an increasing effect on thyroxine binding globulin
A. true
B. false

A. true

3
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true or false? individuals taking recurring regimens of androgens or anabolic steroid drugs may exhibit increased TBG levels
A. True
B. false

B. false

4
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the priamry physiological regulator or parathyroid hormone (PTH) synthesis and secretion is
A. PTH stimulating hormone
B. PTH releasing hormone from the pituitary gland
C. the concentration of free calcium in blood or extracellular fluid
D. the concentration of PTH in blood

C. the concentration of free calcium in blood or extracellular fluid

5
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what makes up the organic matrix component of bone
A. calcium, protein, and collagen
B. minerals and cells only
C. cells and collagen only
D. cells only

A. calcium, protein, and collagen

6
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in bone:
A. osteoblasts are the bone forming cells
B. osetoclasts are responsible for bone formation
C. the collagen component is type II collagen
D. calcium is complexed with bicarbonate

A. osteoblasts are the bone forming cells

7
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an individual's serum phosphate level is decreased but his physician cannot determine a physiological basis for this abnormal result. what could possible have caused this result
A. use of IV carbohydrate therapy to stimulate insulin secretion
B. specimen hemolysis
C. diurnal variation
D. individual not fasting when blood was drawn

A. use of IV carbohydrate therapy to stimulate insulin secretion

8
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hypercalcemia occurs in humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy (HHM) because:
A. tumors synthesize parathyroid hormone (PTH), which increases calcium levels in blood
B. osteoclasts bind tumor marker proteins and the process of bone remodeling becomes unregulated
C. PTH-related protein (PTHrP) is synthesized by tumors and stimulates bone resorption
D. metastisizing cells synthesis calcium and release it into the circulation

C. PTH-related protein (PTHrP) is synthesized by tumors and stimulates bone resorption

9
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the clinical usefulness of calcitonin measurement is
A. int he assessment of primary hyperparathyroidism
B. in the determination of sources of vitamin D deficiency
C. the differential diagnosis of multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN)
D. as a tumor marker for medullary thyroid carcinoma

D. as a tumor marker for medullary thyroid carcinoma

10
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which one of the following analytes is most useful in distinguishing primary from secondary hyperparathyroidism
A. serum phosphorus
B. parathyroid hormone
C. serum calcium
D. vitamin D

D. vitamin D

11
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a factor that would alter protein binding of calcium and its redistribution among the three plasma pools would be
A. a change in an individual's posture
B. an altered anion gap
C. increased citrate concentration
D. liver disease

D. liver disease

12
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what causes the total thyroxine (T4) levels to be increased in pregnant women
A. inappropriate iodine metabolism
B. hGC-induced thyrotoxicosis
C. altered glucose metabolism
D. change in thyroglobulin synthesis

B. hCG-induced thyrotoxicosis

13
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which one of the following is not a function of the thyroid hormones
A. control of metabolic rate
B. increasing cholesterol synthesis and breakdown
C. removal of detective RBCs
D. stimulation of neural development

C. removal of detective RBCs

14
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another term used to describe hyperthyroidism is
A. cretinism
B. thyrotoxicosis
C. goiter
D. euthyroid sick syndrome

B. thyrotoxicosis

15
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severe hypothyroidism that develops during the newborn period is referred to as
A. myexdema
B. thyrotoxicosis
C. euthyroid sick syndrome
D. cretinism

D. cretinism

16
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the limited clinical information that is available from the results of a total T4 measurement is due to
A. the formation of fibrin clots during the preparation of the blood sample
B. interferences with circulating autoantibodies directed against the colloid
C. the fact that total T4 measurements reflect inactive, protein-bound hormone
D. the fact that circadian rhythms are not determine

C. the fact that total T4 measurements reflect inactive, protein-bound hormone

17
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a woman with thyroid cancer has her thyroglobulin (Tg) level checked to assess return of thyroid function following surgery. the Tg value was markedly decreased. her physician calls the lab asking for an explanation of the result. you respond that
A. thyroid cancer obliterates all colloid in the thyroid gland and therefore Tg will not be present ina. blood sample
B. Tg is probably being interfered with by the immunoglobulins that are involved in the healing postsurgery process
C. you lab uses a Tg assay that likely has been interfered with by Tg autoantibodies, which limits the accurate measurement of Tg
D. this is a typical value for someone with thyroid cancer and that Tg can be used as a tumor marker, so decreased values are better than increased values

C. you lab uses a Tg assay that likely has been interfered with by Tg autoantibodies, which limits the accurate measurement of Tg

18
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there is concern that the upper refernece interval value for TSH is set too high to detect subtle hypothyroid disease. it is suggested that the upper reference interval value be reduced to what level to address this concern
A. 4.0 mU/L
B. 2.0 mU/L
C. 3.0 mU/L
D. 5.0 mU/L

C. 3.0 mU/L

19
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which of the followign thyroid hormones is considered to be the most active physiologically
A. MIT
B. DIT
C. T3
D. T4

C. T3

20
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which of the following lab test is most useful in distinguishing between hypothalamic and pituitary causes of thyroid dysfunction
A. T3
B. TRH stimulation test
C. T4
D. TSH

D. TSH

21
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in patients with developing subclinical hyperthyroidism, TSH levels will likely be ___ and fT4 will likely be _____
A. decreased, increased
B. increased, decreased
C. decreased, normal
D. increased, normal

C. decreased, normal

22
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after treatment with medication or radioactive iodine is initiated for hyperthyroidism disease activity is best initally monitored with ___ because _____ will take several weeks or more to return to the reference interval
A. TSH, T4 and T3
B. fT3 and fT4, TSH
C. serum iodine, TSH
D. TSH, fT3, and fT4

B. fT3 and fT4, TSH

23
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which of the following thyroid hormones normally peak at 24 to 36 hrs post delivery in a newborn and gradually fall over the first 4 weeks of life
A. total T4
B. T3
C. fT4
D. all of the above

D. all of the above

24
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the following lab data are suggestive of which clinical situation? TSH - decrease; T4 - decreased; T3 - decreased; rT3 - increased
A. euthyroid sick syndrome
B. grave's disease
C. development of a goiter
D. hashimoto's thyroiditis

A. euthyroid sick syndrome

25
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when free thyroxine cannot be measured directly, the free thyroxine index (FT4I) may be calculated by using which measured lab data
A. T3 and T3 resin uptake
B. TSH and T4
C. T4 and T3 resin uptake
D. TSH and T3 resin uptake

C. T4 and T3 resin uptake

26
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the T3 resin uptake test is used to measure
A. total T3
B. TSH
C. thyroxine binding globulin (TBG)
D. free T3

C. thyroxine binding globulin (TBG)

27
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which of the following forms of thyroxine would be the least available to tissue receptors
A. thyroxine bound to albumin in the circulation
B. thyroxine bound to prealbumin in the circulation
C. thyroxine bound to thyroxine binding globulin in the circulation
D. thyroxine free in the circulation

C. thyroxine bound to thyroxine binding globulin in the circulation

28
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increased TSH, decreased T3, and decreased T4 with the presence of goiter indicate
A. primary hypothyroidism
B. pseudohypothyroidism
C. tertiary hypothyroidism
D. secondary hypothyroidism

A. primary hypothyroidism

29
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what is required for normal thyroxine synthesis
A. TSH, iodine, and thyroglobulin
B. iodine
C. iodine and thyroglobulin
D. iodine and thyroid binding globulin

A. TSH, iodine, and thyroglobulin

30
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the secretory unit of the thyroid gland is the
A. colloid
B. thyroid follicle
C. parafollicular cell
D. thymus

B. thyroid follicle

31
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which amino acid residue of thyroglobulin is responsible for binding iodine in the formation of thyroid hormones
A. guanidine
B. phenyalanine
C. tyrosine
D. histidine

C. tyrosine

32
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thyroid hormones exert influence in most areas of the body. how do thyroid hormones influence the heart
A. all of the above
B. they affect cardiac expression
C. they cause peripheral hemodynamic alterations that influence cardiac function
D. they influence the sensitivity of the heart to the sympathetic nervous system

A. all of the above

33
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a blood specimen is collected in a heparin containing tube for calcium and magnesium determination. upon centrifugation, the plasma appeared hemolyzed. how would this affect the magnesium value
A. the magnesium would form complexes with the hemoglobin and the results would indicated a false neg value
B. because erythrocytes contain magnesium, hemolysis would increased its apparent value
C. there would be no effect on the magnesium value
D. the magnesium would be incorporated into the bilirubin molecule, leading to a false neg value

B. because erythrocytes contain magnesium, hemolysis would increased its apparent value

34
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The major risk factor for development of hepatocellular carcinoma is:

A. hepatorenal syndrome.
B. infection with hepatitis A virus.
C. hepatic encephalopathy.
D. infection with hepatitis B or C viruses

D. infection with hepatitis B or C viruses

35
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The functional unit of the liver is the:

A. glomerulus.
B. acinus.
C. nephron.
D. cord.

B. acinus.

36
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The first protein marker to appear approximately 1 to 2 months after infection with the hepatitis B virus and also the last marker to disappear is the:

A. hepatitis B immune globulin.
B. antihepatitis B surface antigen.
C. antihepatitis B core antigen.
D. hepatitis B surface antigen.

D. hepatitis B surface antigen.

37
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Which one of the following is not a consequence of portal hypertension in an individual?

A. Increased prothrombin time
B. Bleeding esophageal varices
C. Altered estrogen metabolism
D. Hemochromatosis

D. Hemochromatosis

38
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A Model for End-Stage Liver disease staging system to predict prognosis in cirrhosis uses the following laboratory determinations EXCEPT:

A. Aspartate transaminase.
B. Creatinine.
C. INR.
D. Bilirubin.

A. Aspartate transaminase.

39
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Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Necroinflammatory liver disease associated with accumulation of fat in the liver.
B. No inflammation or scarring of the liver.
C. AST greater than ALT.
D. Consumption of less than 20g of ethanol daily.

C. AST greater than ALT.

40
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The liver is supplied by what major source(s) of oxygen-containing blood?

A. the hepatic vein
B. the hepatic artery
C. the portal vein
D. both a and b

** double check order - which is a and which is b

D. both a and b

41
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Deficiency of which of the following vitamins will result in decreased heme synthesis?

A. Thiamine
B. Pyridoxal phosphate (PLP)
C. Riboflavin
D. Niacin

B. Pyridoxal phosphate (PLP)

42
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Which one of the following vitamins will aid in the absorption of iron by the intestine?

A. C
B. A
C. D
D. B12

A. C

43
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The most commonly used method of analysis for assessing vitamins A, K, and B6 is:

A. high performance liquid chromatography (HPLC).
B. spectrophotometry.
C. immunoassay.
D. competitive protein binding.

A. high performance liquid chromatography (HPLC).

44
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Production of bilirubin occurs in the ......................, and conjugation of bilirubin to glucuronide occurs in the .......................

A. Liver; RES
B. RES; intestine
C.Liver; intestine
D. RES; liver

D. RES; liver

45
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Serum bilirubin is unstable because of:

A. Light sensitivity
B. Precipitation due to acid pH
C. Precipitates on standing
D. Digestion by proteolytic enzymes

A. Light sensitivity

46
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Acute intermittent porphyria (AIP) patients have a deficiency of:

A. Coproporphyrinogen oxidase
B. PBG deaminase
C. Ferrochelatase
D. Protoporphyrinogen oxidase

B. PBG deaminase

47
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The number of pyrrole rings found in the structure of all porphyrins is:

A. 2
B. 8
C. 4
D. 3

C. 4

48
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Bile formed in the liver is stored in the:

A. Gall bladder.
B. Liver.
C. Large intestine.
D. Duodenum.

A. Gall bladder.

49
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Which of the statements regarding bilirubin metabolism is TRUE?

A. It is reduced to biliverdin before excretion.
B. It is produced from the destruction of RBCs.
C. It is a product of porphyrin metabolism.
D. It is formed by the hydrolysis of the α-methene bridge of urobilingen.

B. It is produced from the destruction of RBCs.

50
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Which is a characteristic of unconjugated bilirubin?

A. It is water-soluble.
B. It reacts faster than conjugated bilirubin.
C. It has the same absorbance properties as conjugated bilirubin.
D. It a not water-soluble.

D. It a not water-soluble.

51
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The term δ-bilirubin (delta) refers to:

A. Free unconjugated bilirubin.
B. Bilirubin tightly bound to albumin.
C. Water-soluble bilirubin.
D. Direct-reacting bilirubin.

B. Bilirubin tightly bound to albumin.

52
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What is the most common cause of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia?

A. Gilbert's disease
B. Dubin-Johnson
C. Neonatal physiologic jaundice
D. Bile duct obstruction
E. Hemolytic anemia

C. Neonatal physiologic jaundice

53
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In obstructive liver disease, the following test results are found:

A. Feces: urobilinogen decreased or negative; urine: urobilinogen decreased or negative; serum: conjugated bilirubin decreased.
B. Feces: urobilinogen decreased; urine: bilirubin: positive; serum: conjugated bilirubin increased.
C. None of the above.
D. Feces: urobilinogen increased; urine: bilirubin: normal; serum: conjugated bilirubin normal or slightly elevated.

B. Feces: urobilinogen decreased; urine: bilirubin: positive; serum: conjugated bilirubin increased.

54
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Alcoholic liver disease that follows six months to a year of moderate consumption, few lab abnormalities, and is reversible with abstinence from alcohol is termed:

A. Alcoholic cirrhosis.
B. Alcoholic fatty liver.
C. Alcoholic hepatitis.
D. None of the above.

B. Alcoholic fatty liver.

55
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If a total bilirubin is 4.0 mg/dL and the conjugated bilirubin is 2.5 mg/dL, the unconjugated bilirubin is:

A. 1.5 mg/dL.
B. 2.0 mg/dL.
C. 3.0 mg/dL.
D. 1.0 mg/dL.

A. 1.5 mg/dL.

56
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Viral hepatitis that results in the largest percentage of chronic hepatitis is:

A. Hepatitis B.
B. Hepatitis C.
C. Hepatitis D.
D. Hepatitis A.

B. Hepatitis C.

57
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The type of RNA virus that is considered to be the cause of the most common type of acute hepatitis that does not lead to chronic hepatitis is:

A. hepatitis B virus.
B. hepatitis A virus.
C. Reye syndrome.
D. hepatitis C virus.

B. hepatitis A virus.

58
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In the liver, ammonia is metabolized to form:

A. ketoacids.
B. glucuronic acid.
C. urea.
D. amino acid

C. urea.

59
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Caffeine is used in bilirubin assays to:

A. Reduce sodium nitrite
B. Precipitate proteins
C. Stop the diazo reaction
D. Accelerate direct bilirubin reaction
E. Accelerate indirect bilirubin reaction

E. Accelerate indirect bilirubin reaction

60
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When elevated amounts of bilirubin are presented to the liver with elevated serum unconjugated bilirubin, what type of jaundice occurs?

A. Biliary
B. Prehepatic
C. Hepatic
D. Posthepatic

B. Prehepatic

61
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The placenta secretes numerous hormones, both protein and steroid. Which of the following hormones is not secreted by the placenta?

Estrogen
Human placental lactogen (HPL)
Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Progesterone

Luteinizing hormone (LH)

62
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The FINAL metabolite of epinephrine that is measured in urine is:

Homovanillic acid
Dopamine
Vanillylmandelic acid
Metanephrines

Vanillylmandelic acid

63
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As a screening test for Cushing's syndrome, the physician wishes to see whether a patient exhibits normal diurnal rhythm of his cortisol secretion. At what time should the specimens be drawn for plasma cortisol determination? (Assume a daytime work schedule for the patient.)

Noon, midnight
8 AM, 8 PM
Noon, 6 PM
8 AM, 2 PM
6 AM, noon

8AM and 8 PM

64
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In a patient who is suspected of having pheochromocytoma, measurement of which of the following urinary compounds would be the most useful?
Catecholamines
Homovanillic acid
Vanillylmandelic acid
Metanephrines
Dopamine

Metanephrines

65
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Measurement of urinary metanephrine and vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) assesses the amount of hormone secreted by the ................ and is done to detect the presence of ................ .

gastrointestinal (GI) tract; carcinoid tumor
medulla of the brain; neuroblastoma
adrenal medulla; pheochromocytoma
adrenal cortex; Cushing syndrome

adrenal medulla; pheochromocytoma

66
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Which one of the following substances is measured in urine to determine the presence of a gastroenteropancreatic neuroendocrine tumor in an individual with carcinoid syndrome?
Metanephrine
5-Hydroxyindole acetic acid (5-HIAA)
Homovanillic acid (HVA)
VMA

5-Hydroxyindole acetic acid (5-HIAA)

67
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In the assessment of equivocal results in pheochromocytoma testing, the clonidine suppression test is used to differentiate between:

adrenal gland and GI tract increased synthesis of dopamine.
adrenal gland and sympathetic nervous system increases in catecholamine synthesis.
increased serotonin production by the GI tract versus serotonin from the brain.
elevated blood pressure caused by pheochromocytoma versus that caused by carcinoid tumor.

adrenal gland and sympathetic nervous system increases in catecholamine synthesis.

68
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Pheochromocytomas:
are tumors derived from enterochromaffin cells.
are benign in the majority of cases.
produce hypotension (decreased blood pressure).
tend to secrete serotonin in increased amounts.

are benign in the majority of cases

69
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The amino acid precursor for the neurotransmitter serotonin (5HT) is:
tyrosine.
threonine.
tryptophan.
cytosine.

tryptophan

70
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Metabolism of norepinephrine and epinephrine in adrenal chromaffin cells requires the presence of which one of the following enzymes for conversion into normetanephrine and metanephrine?

Catechol-O-methyltransferase
Dopamine-beta-hydroxylase
Tyrosine hydroxylase
Monoamine oxidase

Catechol-O-methyltransferase

71
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An overnight fast is recommended for individuals being tested for carcinoid syndrome because:

monoamine systems are targets of certain components of foods that contain tyrosine, and a false-negative result will occur in HVA testing.

certain foods interfere with the methods of analysis used for serotonin analysis, particularly the high performance liquid chromatography (HPLC) assays.

dietary interference, particularly with foods that contain 5-hydroxyindoles, will produce a false increase in plasma 5-HIAA measurement.

no food should be present in the GI tract for 12 hours before analysis of catecholamine metabolites.

dietary interference, particularly with foods that contain 5-hydroxyindoles, will produce a false increase in plasma 5-HIAA measurement

72
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The urinary metabolite measured as an indicator of dopamine synthesis is:
metanephrine.
catechol-O-methyltransferase.
homovanillic acid.
vanillylmandelic acid.

homovanillic acid

73
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The rate-limiting step in the biosynthesis of catecholamines is the:

conversion of tyrosine to 3,4-dihydroxyphenylalanine by tyrosine hydroxylase.

metabolism by catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) to MHPG.

conversion of tryptophan to 5-hydroxytryptophan by tryptophan hydroxylase.

conversion of 3-methoxy-4-hydroxyphenylglycol (MHPG) to VMA by alcohol dehydrogenase.

conversion of tyrosine to 3,4-dihydroxyphenylalanine by tyrosine hydroxylase

74
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Currently, the most common method of analysis for plasma catecholamines is:

liquid chromatography (LC) with electrochemical (EC) detection.
spectrophotometry.
HPLC.
mass spectrometry.

liquid chromatography (LC) with electrochemical (EC) detection

75
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All of the following represent metabolic effects caused by the action of epinephrine secreted from the adrenal gland except:

glycogenolysis.
increased protein synthesis.
bronchodilation.
increased lipolysis.

increased protein synthesis

76
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The follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) are important in the reproductive function of the male and female and are released in response to:

oxytocin.
corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH).
gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH).
TSH.

gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

77
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Which one of the following hormones is classified as a glycoprotein?

Prolactin
Follicle-stimulating hormone
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
Growth hormone

Follicle-stimulating hormone

78
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Androgen secretion by the testes is stimulated by:

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Gonadotropins
Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Testosterone

Luteinizing hormone (LH)

79
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A genetic disorder causing a deficiency of certain enzymes in the synthetic pathways leading to cortisol and aldosterone production is referred to as:

Cushing's syndrome
Conn's syndrome
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Addison's disease

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

80
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The anterior portion of the pituitary gland synthesizes many protein hormones. Another name for this part of the pituitary gland is the:

neurohypophysis.
hypophysis.
adenohypophysis.
hypothalamus.

adenohypophysis

81
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The hypothalamic hormone that inhibits prolactin is referred to as prolactin-inhibiting hormone but is actually:

interleukin 1.
adrenaline.
thyrotropin.
dopamine.

dopamine

82
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Which one of the following hormones causes the hypothalamus to trigger the surge of luteinizing hormone (LH) from the anterior pituitary just before ovulation?

Estrogen
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Progesterone

Estrogen

83
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What would the laboratory results be in a male patient exhibiting characteristic symptoms of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism?

Elevated testosterone, elevated FSH
Elevated testosterone, decreased FSH
Decreased testosterone, elevated FSH
Decreased testosterone, decreased FSH

Decreased testosterone, decreased FSH

84
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During the luteal phase, which hormone, when decreased in the absence of conception, releases its inhibition on pituitary gland synthesis and release of FSH?

Estradiol
Estrone
Progesterone
Chorionic gonadotropin

Estradiol

85
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Which one of the following hormones shuts off synthesis and release of LH from the male pituitary gland?

Testosterone
Inhibin
FSH
Prolactin

Testosterone

86
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For the past 3 weeks, serum estriol levels in a pregnant woman have been steadily increasing. This is consistent with:

A normal pregnancy
Congenital cytomegalovirus infection
Hemolytic disease of the newborn
Fetal death

A normal pregnancy

87
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Which of the following is secreted by the placenta and used for the early detection of pregnancy?

Progesterone
Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)

Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)

88
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In nonpregnant women, progesterone is synthesized and secreted by the:

Both a and b are correct.
corpus luteum.
pituitary gland.
placenta.

corpus luteum

89
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Typical findings in a woman in menopause include:

decreased serum LH/FSH.
hirsutism.
decreased estrogen and inhibin.
increased progesterone.

decreased estrogen and inhibin

90
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Which one of the following statements regarding FSH/LH is incorrect?

Progesterone produced by the corpus luteum causes LH levels to increase.
LH acts to stimulate Leydig cells in the testes to synthesize testosterone.
FSH acts on the cells of the follicle to increase responsiveness of LH receptors.
FSH, secreted by the anterior pituitary, induces follicular maturation.

Progesterone produced by the corpus luteum causes LH levels to increase

91
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Dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (DHEA-S):

analysis is performed using heparinized plasma.

is an important screening test used to evaluate women with hirsutism and virilization.

concentration is increased in 17-hydroxylase deficiency-caused amenorrhea.

concentrations exhibit a circadian rhythm that reflects the secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).

is an important screening test used to evaluate women with hirsutism and virilization

92
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The analytical method that provides better analytical sensitivity in hormone detection than other methods such as immunoassay or receptor-based assays is:

tandem mass spectrometry.
immunometric assay.
bioassay.
spectrophotometry.

tandem mass spectrometry

93
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A man visits his physician complaining of hypertension (elevated heart rate and blood pressure), periodic bouts of profuse sweating, and occasional severe headaches. These symptoms are indicative of:

Cushing syndrome.
carcinoid syndrome.
neuroblastoma.
pheochromocytoma.

pheochromocytoma

94
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Which one of the following statements concerning steroid hormones is correct?

Steroid hormones, because of their structure, are not bound to carrier proteins as they circulate in the As a screening test for Cushing's syndrome blood.
Steroid hormones are hydrophobic when free and bind to intracellular receptors in the nucleus.

Steroid hormones attach to a receptor on the surface of a cell, which eventually induces enzyme phosphorylation within the cell.

Steroid hormones have a very short half-life (usually <30 minutes) in the circulation.

Steroid hormones are hydrophobic when free and bind to intracellular receptors in the nucleus.

95
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Which one of the following hormones causes the hypothalamus to trigger the surge of luteinizing hormone (LH) from the anterior pituitary just before ovulation?
a) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
b) Progesterone
c) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
d) Estrogen

d) Estrogen

96
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Because of the biochemical properties of steroid hormones, the majority of these hormones, at physiological concentration:
a) are bound with high affinity to a carrier protein in the circulation.
b) are bound with low affinity to albumin.
c) are conjugated to glucuronides.
d) remain free in the circulation.

a) are bound with high affinity to a carrier protein in the circulation.

97
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The urinary metabolite of cortisol and adrenal androgens is:
a) 11-desoxycortisol.
b) 17-ketosteroid.
c) 17-hydroxyprogesterone.
d) renin.

b) 17-ketosteroid.

98
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In the classic plasma renin activity assay that measures the main function of the enzyme and uses inhibitors of angiotensinase, what is actually measured at the end of the assay?
a) Angiotensin-converting enzyme
b) Angiotensin II
c) Angiotensin I
d) Plasma renin

c) Angiotensin I

99
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Laboratory assessment of which of the following hormones is used to evaluate ovulation?
a) Estradiol
b) All of the above
c) Progesterone
d) FSH

c) Progesterone

100
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Which one of the following statements concerning androstenedione is incorrect?
a) Androstenedione metabolites are measured as 17-ketosteroids.
b) The precursor molecule in the formation of androstenedione is dihydroepiandrostenedione (DHEA).
c) In adrenal carcinoma, cortisol is greatly elevated, but androstenedione is greatly decreased.
d) 11-Hydroxylase deficiency leads to elevated plasma androstenedione.

c) In adrenal carcinoma, cortisol is greatly elevated, but androstenedione is greatly decreased.