patho quiz bank exam 1

A 30-year-old male with HIV is diagnosed with Epstein-Barr virus. After 2 months, the virus is still active. Based upon the Epstein-Barr virus, which of the following cancers is most likely to develop in this patient?

A 30-year-old male with HIV is diagnosed with Epstein-Barr virus. After 2 months, the virus is still active. Based upon the Epstein-Barr virus, which of the following cancers is most likely to develop in this patient?

B-cell lymphoma

The role of physical activity in the prevention of colon cancer is identified by which of the following?

It increases gut motility, thereby decreasing the time the bowel is exposed to mutagens

When an aide asks why carcinomas rarely occur in childhood, how should the nurse respond? (Select all that apply.)

• Carcinomas need a long time from exposure to occurrence.

• Carcinomas are due to environmental exposures.

What event occurs in about 70% of the cases of childhood cancers?

Cured

Which information should the nurse include when teaching about angiogenic factors? In cancer, angiogenic factors stimulate:

new blood vessel growth

The nurse explains to a parent that young children diagnosed with Down syndrome are at higher risk for developing:

Leukemia

Which information indicates a nurse understands characteristics of malignant tumors?

Invasive

A 25-year-old male develops a tumor of the breast glandular tissue. What type of tumor will be documented on the chart?

Adenocarcinoma

What is the origin of most childhood cancers?

Mesodermal germ layer

A 30-year-old female is diagnosed with cancer. Testing reveals that the cancer cells have spread to local lymph nodes. A nurse realizes this cancer would be documented as stage:

3

An oncologist is discussing when a cancer cell loses differentiation. Which of the following is the oncologist describing?

Anaplasia

What is the effect of telomere caps on cancer cells?

Repeated divisions

A 45-year-old female was recently diagnosed with cervical cancer. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her cancer?

Human papillomavirus (HPV)

A 40-year-old female developed adenocarcinoma of the vagina. Which prenatal event is the most likely cause of her cancer?

Exposure to diethylstilbestrol (DES)

When an oncologist is teaching about how radiation induces genomic instability, which topic should the oncologist discuss?

Facilitating new mutations

A 50-year-old female confirms chronic alcohol intake. This practice places the patient at risk for cancer in which organs? (Select all that apply.)

• Esophagus

• Larynx

• Breast

• Liver

When an oncologist is discussing the degree to which an organism’s development is contingent on its environment, which of the following is the oncologist explaining?

Developmental plasticity

A patient develops skin cancer on the head and neck following years of sunbathing. Which of the following cancers is most likely?

Basal cell carcinoma

A nurse is giving an example of inflammation as an etiology for cancer development. What is the best example the nurse should give?

Ulcerative colitis and colon cancer

Which genetic change causes alterations in only one or a few nucleotide bases?

Point mutations

A patient has a tissue growth that was diagnosed as cancer. Which of the following terms best describes this growth?

Malignant tumor

A patient asks when adjuvant chemotherapy is used. How should the nurse respond? Adjuvant chemotherapy treatment is used:

after surgical removal of a tumor

A nurse is preparing to teach the most common malignancy in children. Which malignancy should the nurse discuss?

Leukemia

A 16 year old with aspirations of becoming a bodybuilder spends 3 hours a day in the gym. Five years later, a hepatocellular carcinoma is discovered. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the cancer?

Anabolic steroids

The most important environmental risk factor for cancer is exposure to:

cigarette smoke

Chromosome aberrations and mutations in cells that were not directly irradiated are referred to as:

bystander effects

Brachytherapy is being used to treat cancer in a patient. What types of cancers respond well to brachytherapy? (Select all that apply.)

• Head

• Prostate

• Neck

• Cervix

A 52-year-old male with hepatitis C recently developed hepatic cancer. Which of the following markers should be increased?

Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)

A 3-year-old female was diagnosed with Wilms tumor. This disease is a tumor of the:

kidney

Which characterizes an embryonic cancer tumor?

Usually manifested around age 5

The most common type of tissue cancer occurring between ages 15 and 19 is:

carcinoma

A nurse recalls physical activity was shown to definitely reduce the risk of which of the following types of cancer?

Colon

A patient asks why indoor pollution is worse than outdoor pollution. How should the nurse respond? Indoor pollution is considered worse than outdoor pollution because of cigarette smoke and:

radon

A 65-year-old patient recently diagnosed with cancer retired from construction work. Which cancer is likely to develop secondarily to occupational hazards?

Mesothelioma

A 45-year-old male presents with persistent, severe stomach pain. Testing reveals a peptic ulcer. Further laboratory tests reveal the presence of Helicobacter pylori. Which of the following is of concern for this patient?

Gastric cancer

Which of the following indicates a nurse understands a proto-oncogene? A proto-oncogene is best defined as a(n) _____ gene.

normal

A nurse is discussing preinvasive epithelial tumors of glandular or squamous cell origin. What is the nurse describing?

Cancer in situ

A primary care provider is attempting to diagnose cancer and is looking for a tumor marker. Which of the following could be a possible marker?

Enzymes

When a patient presents at the emergency department for an allergic reaction, the nurse recognizes the most severe consequence of a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction is

Anaphylaxis

The nurse is assessing a patient with a diagnosis of inflammation. The nurse would expect to find which of the following signs and symptoms consistent with acute inflammation? (Select all that apply)

• Pain

• Erythema

• Heat

• Loss of function

• Swelling

A nurse remembers that the primary actions of the complement cascade include

• Cell killing

• Opsonization

• Chemotaxis

• Increased vascular permeability

 Stress-induced catecholamine release from the adrenal medulla may result in:

Elevated blood pressure

When a patient asks the nurse what hypersensitivity is, how should the nurse respond? Hypersensitivity is best defined as:

An excessive or inappropriate  response of the immune system to a sensitizing antigen

An immunology nurse is caring for a patient. While planning care, which principle will the nurse remember? The primary role of IgA1 is to prevent infections in the:

Blood

A macrophage was isolated and analyzed for major histocompatibility complex. Which of the following would be expected?

MHC I and II

A nurse is preparing to teach on a subject of opsonins. Which information should the nurse include? Opsonins are molecules that:

enhance phagocytosis

An 8-year-old female presents with edema of the cutaneous and mucosal tissue layers. Her mother reports that the condition is recurrent and seems to occur more often during stressful situations. The child is diagnosed with hereditary angioedema. Which of the following is deficient in this child?

C1 esterase inhibitor

Physical barriers that offer the body protection from damage and infection are located in the: (Select all that apply.)

• gastrointestinal tract. 

• respiratory tract. 

• genitourinary tract

A 30-year-old male was involved in a motor vehicle accident. The glass from the shattered window cut his face and neck. The scar, however, was raised and extended beyond the original boundaries of the wound. This pattern of scarring is caused by impaired:

collagen synthesis

After studying about fungi, which information indicates a correct understanding of fungi?

are commonly opportunistic

A 20-year-old male shoots his hand with a nail gun while replacing roofing shingles. Which of the following cell types would be the first to aid in killing bacteria to prevent infection in his hand?

neutrophils

Which of the following individuals would be at greatest risk for an opportunistic infection?

24 year old who is immunocompromised

Which factor will help the nurse differentiate leukotrienes from histamine?

Time of release

Direct effects of antibodies include: (select all that apply)

• Neutralization

• Agglutination

• Precipitation

An infant is experiencing hemolytic disease of the newborn. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find in the infant’s history and physical?

the baby is Rh positive

A 25-year-old female has sexual relations with her boyfriend. Later she is told that the boyfriend is infected with Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Testing reveals that she does not have the disease. How is it possible that she did not contract the disease?

Antibodies covered sites of attachment

A person is given an attenuated antigen as a vaccine. When the person asks what was given in the vaccine, how should the nurse respond?

Alive, but less infectious

A 25-year-old female presents to her primary care provider reporting vaginal discharge of a white, viscous, and foul-smelling substance. She reports that she has been taking antibiotics for the past 6 months. Which finding will the nurse most likely see on the microorganism report?

Decreased Lactobacillus

What comorbid condition does an individual diagnosed with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome have an increased risk of developing?

Cancer

A nurse is instructing the staff about cellular functions. Which cellular function is the nurse describing when an isolated cell absorbs oxygen and uses it to transform nutrients into energy?

Respiration

Characteristics of prokaryotes include which of the following?

They contain no organelles.

Their nuclear material is not encased by a nuclear membrane.

They contain a cellular membrane.

A eukaryotic cell is undergoing DNA replication. In which region of the cell would most of the genetic information be contained?

Nucleolus

A patient demonstrates severe cognitive disability caused by a deletion of part of chromosome 5. What genetic disorder will the nurse see documented in the chart?

Cri du chat syndrome

What is the result of homologous chromosomes failing to separate during meiosis?

nondisjunction

A child is diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. History reveals that the child’s parents are siblings. Cystic fibrosis was most likely the result of:

consanguinity

A 13-year-old girl has a karyotype that reveals an absent homologous X chromosome with only a single X chromosome present. What medical diagnosis will the nurse observe on the chart?

Turner syndrome

5-Azacytidine has demonstrated promise in the treatment of which form of cancer?

Pancreatic

Which embryonic stem cell characteristic is referred to as totipotent?

Ability to differentiate into any type of somatic cell.

Research has provided support for the theory that epigenetic modifications can result from deficient in utero nutrition causing which chronic disease?

Obesity

Cardiovascular disease

Diabetes (Type II)

A runner has depleted all the oxygen available for muscle energy. Which of the following will facilitate his continued muscle performance?

Anaerobic glycolysis

A medical student is discussing the movement of fluid across the arterial end of capillary membranes into the interstitial fluid surrounding the capillary. Which process of fluid movement is the medical student describing?

Hydrostatic pressure

Pancreatic beta cells secrete insulin, which inhibits the secretion of glucagon from neighboring alpha cells. This action is an example of which of the following signaling types?

Paracrine

The base components of DNA are:

A,G,C, and T

A 20-year-old pregnant female gives birth to a stillborn child. Autopsy reveals that the fetus has 92 chromosomes. What term may be on the autopsy report to describe this condition?

Tetraploidy

After a geneticist talks to a patient about being a chromosomal mosaic, the patient asks the nurse what that means. How should the nurse respond? You may _____ genetic disease(s).

have a mild form of

A patient, age 9, is admitted to a pediatric unit with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. When planning care, the nurse recalls the patient inherited this condition through a trait that is:

X-linked recessive

Screening tools that are epigenetically based have shown promise in diagnosing which types of cancer?

Colon

Breast

Bladder

Prostate

When considering abnormal epigenetic modifications, what factor is currently being viewed as strongly associated with the development of some cancers?

Environmental stressors

Research has demonstrated that neural stem cells have an impaired ability to differentiate into functional neurons when subjected to:

ethanol

Which of the following can remove proteins attached to the cell’s bilayer by dissolving the layer itself?

Integral membrane proteins

Which causes the rapid change in the resting membrane potential that initiates an action potential?

Sodium gates open, and sodium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive

Which of the following mutations have the most significant effect on protein synthesis?

Frameshift mutation

A DNA strand has a region with the sequence ATCGGAT. Which of the following would be a complementary strand?

TAGCCTAG

An aide asks the nurse why people who have neurofibromatosis will show vary in degrees of the disease. Which genetic principle should the nurse explain to the aide?

Expressivity

A patient has a body fluid of 300 mOsm/kg. This lab result is measuring:

Osmolality

A 15-year-old female is diagnosed with Prader-Willi syndrome. This condition is an example of:

Genomic imprinting

A patient wants to know the risk factors for Down syndrome. What is the physician’s best response?

Pregnancy in women over age 35

What comorbid condition does an individual diagnosed with Beckwish-Wiedemann syndrome have an increased risk of developing?

Cancer

A cell is isolated, and electrophysiology studies reveal that the resting membrane potential is −70 mV. The predominant intracellular ion is Na+, and the predominant extracellular ion is K+. With voltage change, which of the following would result in an action potential?

K+ rushing into the cell

A 12-year-old male is diagnosed with Klinefelter syndrome. His karyotype would reveal which of the following?

XXY

What is the most common cause of Down syndrome?

Maternal nondisjuction

Housekeeping genes are vital to the function and maintenance of all the body’s cells. What characteristic is associated with these genes?

They are transcriptionally active.

A PT is reading a chart and sees the term oncotic pressure. The PT recalls that oncotic pressure (colloid osmotic pressure) is determined by:

plasma proteins

Which phase of catabolism produces the most ATP?

Citric acid cycle

A cell that does not contain a multiple of 23 chromosomes is called a _____ cell.

aneuploid

The phase of the cell cycle during which the centromeres split and the sister chromatids are pulled apart is referred to as

Anaphase

A nurse is reviewing a report from a patient with metastatic cancer. Which alteration in the extracellular matrix would support the diagnosis of metastatic cancer?

Decreased fibronectin

An OT recalls the basic components of DNA are

A phosphate molecule, deoxyribose, and four nitrogenous bases

The condition in which an extra portion of a chromosome is present in each cell is called:

Partial trisomy

During which stage of human development does the role of epigenetics have the greatest impact on the development of epigenetic abnormalities?

In utero