NCLEX flashcards

A set of Question-and-Answer style flashcards covering pharmacology concepts, obstetric and pediatric topics, burns, critical care, and nursing caregiving principles from the notes.

What does ADME stand for in pharmacokinetics (as listed in the notes, sometimes shown as ADMB)?

Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, and Excretion.

What suffix is commonly used for beta-blockers, and name an example from the notes.

-olol; e.g., metoprolol.

Which diuretic is potassium-sparing according to the notes?

Spironolactone.

ACE inhibitors end with which suffix, and give an example from the notes.

-pril; e.g., lisinopril.

ARBs end with which suffix, and name an example.

-sartan; e.g., losartan.

Which insulin type peaks at about 2 hours after administration?

Regular insulin.

Which insulin type peaks about 1 hour after administration?

Short-acting insulin.

What are the key risks and monitoring considerations with Gentamicin (aminoglycoside)?

Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity; narrow therapeutic range; monitor renal function and audibility.

When is the peak concentration reached for Gentamicin after the end of infusion?

30 minutes after the end of the infusion.

What is Diltiazem and a major precaution regarding its use?

A Calcium Channel Blocker (anti-arrhythmic); do not give to someone with a third-degree heart block and bradycardia.

What is a notable side effect of Captopril (ACE inhibitor)?

Dry cough; watch for hyperkalemia (peaked T waves).

What is the antidote for Ethylene Glycol (antifreeze) poisoning?

Fomepizole.

What is Digoxin toxicity often related to potassium levels?

Low potassium (hypokalemia) increases the risk of Digoxin toxicity.

What is the antidote for iron overload (ferrous) toxicity?

Deferoxamine (De-FERO).

What is the normal INR range, and what does a high INR indicate?

0.6–1.2; a high INR means blood clotting is impaired (hold anticoagulants).

What antidote is used for heparin toxicity?

Protamine sulfate.

What is the antidote for Warfarin overdose?

Vitamin K.

What is the primary use of aspirin as an antiplatelet medication?

Prevents stroke and clots in stents.

What does ARB stand for, and what is its general effect?

Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker; causes vasodilation and treats hypertension, PAD, and heart failure.

What is Amiodarone used for?

Antiarrhythmic for atrial arrhythmias, ventricular tachycardia (VT), and SVT.

What suffix do ACE inhibitors end with, and what is a classic side effect noted in the notes?

-pril; dry cough.

What are MONA components in myocardial infarction management?

Morphine, Oxygen, Nitroglycerin, Aspirin.

What is Theophylline used for?

Bronchodilator (methylxanthine).

What caution is given about aspirin use for headaches in the notes?

Aspirin is NOT recommended for headaches and concussions.

Why is PTT monitored with IV heparin therapy?

To ensure appropriate anticoagulation and detect potential heparin effects.

What disease involves frequent transfusions and chelation therapy to prevent iron overload?

Thalassemia.

What is chelation therapy's purpose?

To bind and remove metals (such as excess iron) from the body.

What are the three levels of health promotion and their focus?

Primary: before disease (vaccinations, education); Secondary: early diagnosis (screenings); Tertiary: after disease (management, rehabilitation, recovery, therapy).

What medication is used to treat elevated ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy?

Lactulose.

What hormone is Vasopressin and what key monitoring should be considered?

Antidiuretic hormone; monitor sodium levels and fluid balance.

What is the scope difference between RNs and LPNs as described in the notes?

RNs assess first and coordinate care; LPNs work with stable patients and cannot initiate referrals or consultations.

What is a common immediate action for post-extubation stridor?

Call Rapid Response Team.

Which steroid is mentioned in relation to masking infection and affecting blood glucose?

Methylprednisolone (a corticosteroid).

What is a key nursing consideration with chest tubes?

Watch for tidaling; do not add water or clamp unless ordered; note potential blockages or fluid buildup.

What immunoglobulin passes from mother to baby during gestation?

IgG.

What immunoglobulin passes to the baby via breastfeeding?

IgA (through breast milk).

What are the two Hepatitis vaccines noted, and how are they generally transmitted?

Hepatitis A (not blood-borne, vaccine schedule referenced) and Hepatitis B (blood-borne).

What respiratory condition is characterized by a barking cough and is treated with racemic epinephrine?

Croup.

What is a key pre-culture step for wound culture collection?

Irrigate the wound with sterile water before collecting the specimen.

Which diuretic is Bumetanide (Bumex), and what is its primary effect?

A loop diuretic; reduces preload and ventricular stretch.

In the context of arrhythmias, what should be done if ventricular fibrillation is suspected?

Confirm VFib, then call a code and begin defibrillation/support per protocol.

What procedure involves checking dentures before ECT?

Electroconvulsive Therapy (ETT) – check dentures and ensure muscle relaxant is given.

What condition presents with sharp RUQ pain, nausea/vomiting, and possible jaundice if the bile duct is blocked?

Cholecystitis.

What does late decelerations during fetal monitoring indicate?

Placental insufficiency.

What is the weight-based heparin dosing related concept noted?

Unfractionated heparin is weight-based; dose calculated from patient weight.

Name some antidotes listed for overdose/poisoning.

Digoxin: Digibind; Heparin: Protamine sulfate; Warfarin: Vitamin K; Benzodiazepines: Flumazenil; Acetaminophen: N-acetylcysteine; Opioids: Naloxone; Beta blockers: Glucagon.

How many types of urinary incontinence are listed, and what are they?

Urge, Stress, Functional, Overflow, Mixed (combination of types).

In terms of neurological assessment, what does a higher Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score indicate?

Better neurological function; higher is generally better.

What condition is associated with neutropenia and common in cancer patients?

Low neutrophil count (neutropenia).

What is Diazepam used for?

Anxiolytic and anticonvulsant (benzodiazepine).

What does a fecal occult blood test result look like when positive?

Turns blue.

What is a recommended practice regarding labor for pregnant patients facing possible surgery?

If needed, eating during labor may be considered to prepare for potential surgery.

Which dietary guidance is given for Cushing syndrome?

Low-sodium, high-potassium diet.

What postpartum assessment checklist is described and what does BUBBLE-E stand for?

Postpartum assessment: Breasts, Uterine fundus, Bladder, Bowel, Lochia, Episiotomy, Emotions.

What should be done regarding a boggy uterus postpartum?

Massage the uterus to promote contraction (firming the fundus).