Exam 2 - Pharmacology

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305 Terms

1
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What help prevent seizures by suppressing the spread of abnormal electric impulses from the seizure focus to other areas of the cerebral cortex?

anticonvulsants

2
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All anticonvulsants are _____________ and may cause ?

CNS depressants

ataxia, drowsiness, hepatotoxicity

3
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What is the drug of choice for long term seizures?

phenobarbital

4
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Phenobarbital has a ___________, so it may only be needed once or twice a day.

long half life

5
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What are side effects of phenobarbital?

polyphasia

polydipsia

polyuria

6
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The dose for phenobarbital is measured in ?

grains (1 grain = 60mg)

7
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What is the drug of choice for emergency treatment of seizures?

diazepam

8
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How does diazepam control seizures?

rapidly penetrating the blood brain barrier and enhancing GABA

9
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What routes are diazepam available in?

oral and IV

10
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If diazepam cannot be given IV, it can be administered as ___________ and administered ____________.

diastat, rectally

11
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What should you be mindful of when giving diazepam to cats?

it can cause a drug induced hepatopathy and idiopathic hepatic necrosis

12
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What is one of the most common adjunct therapies for animals whose seizures are not well controlled by phenobarbital alone?

potassium bromide

13
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What is a disadvantage of potassium bromide?

narrow therapeutic index, can cause toxicity easily

14
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If we add potassium bromide with phenobarbital, what must be done?

decrease the phenobarbital level

15
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Primidone is highly dependent on the metabolism of primidone to ?

phenobarbital

16
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What is a human medication that was once popular for epilepsy in animals?

phenytoin (dilantin)

17
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What is a major disadvantage of phenytoin?

have to give at least 3 times a day

18
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Levetiracetam does/does not cause hepatic issues.

does not

19
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What is the half life of levetiracetam (keppra)?

4-8 hours

20
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What are the limiting factors of levetiracetam (keppra)?

given up to 3 times a day

expensive

21
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What is levetiracetam useful for?

canine epilepsy

cases that cannot tolerate phenobarbital or potassium bromide

22
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What is GABA?

gamma-aminobutyric acid

a chemical messenger widely distributed in the brain

23
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How can activity in the brain be decreased?

suppress release of norepinephrine

enhance activity of GABA

24
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How can activity in the brain be increased?

use Methylxanthine compounds

25
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What change the concentrations of selected neurotransmitters in the brain?

Behavior modifying drugs

26
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What are antipsychotics?

major tranquilizers

27
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What are antidepressants?

mood elevating drugs

28
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What are anxiolytics?

drugs that lyse anxiety

decrease fear response

29
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What is a disadvantage of antipsychotics?

reduces response to both normal and abnormal stimuli in the environment

animals have less interest in environment

will not respond with warning growl

30
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What are used to control learned fear responses to thunder and fireworks?

antipsychotics

31
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Phenothiazine tranquilizers (antipsychotics) do not suppress?

instinctual responses

32
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What is a better antipsychotic than acepromazine?

trazodone

33
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What is trazodone good for?

separation

noise phobia

veterinary visits

hospitalization

34
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What are the three classes of antidepressants?

tricyclic (TCA)

selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI)

monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOI)

35
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TCAs are named for their ?

chemical structure

36
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SSRIs and MAOIs are named for their?

mechanisms in which they work

37
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What are the TCAs?

amitriptyline

clomipramine (Clomicalm)

38
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What decrease the uptake of serotonin which allows the neurotransmitter to accumulate and prolong the activity?

Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)

39
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Amitriptyline blocks the reuptake of ?

norepinephrine

40
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What are TCAs used to treat?

generalized anxiety and separation anxiety

41
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What has been used to decrease inappropriate spraying and excessive grooming in cats and feather picking in birds?

amitriptyline

42
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What is used for the treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorders in dogs; it is also used for separation anxiety and aggressive behaviors?

clomicalm

43
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What enhance the effect of serotonin in the neurotransmitter by blocking the removal from the synaptic cleft?

selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

44
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SSRIs are more selective for blocking ___________ without blocking the other neurotransmitters.

serotonin

45
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What are examples of SSRIs?

fluoxetine

fluvoxamine

paroxetine

sertraline

46
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What is an example of an MAOI?

selegilene

47
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What is the most common MAOI?

selegilene

48
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What are MAOIs used to treat?

cognitive dysfunction (old dog senility)

49
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What increase the amount of dopamine found in selected cells of the CNS and enhance effects of dopamine?

monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)

50
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Why are anxiolytics not frequently used for behavior modification?

they have nonspecific activity and interfere with the animal's ability to learn

51
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What are other examples of behavior modifying drugs?

beta blockers

antihistamines

anticonvulsants

progestin

52
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What are the take home points of behavior modification?

there is not magic pill to modify behavior

behavior modification requires training, persistence of owner, and medication

53
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What is a phase of chemotherapy that involves more intensified therapy than the maintenance phase?

induction therapy

54
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What is the goal of induction therapy?

reduce the number of cancer cells and induce remission

55
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What is a continuation of a chemotherapy protocol that maintains remission and prevent relapse?

maintenance therapy

56
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What is a re-induction chemotherapy for patients who fail one standard protocol?

rescue therapy

57
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What are the general side effects of chemotherapy?

inappetence

nausea

vomiting

diarrhea

dehydration

myelosuppression

alopecia

58
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What is the first step to protecting yourself from exposure to chemotherapy drugs?

understand how accidental exposure can occur

59
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How can accidental exposure to chemotherapy drugs occur?

absorption through skin

inhalation

ingestion of contaminated food

absorption or inhalation during opening of glass ampules

60
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Where should toxic drugs be prepared and administered?

low traffic, well ventilated area with a ventilated hood

61
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What PPE should be worn when handling toxic drugs?

filter mask

gloves

long-sleeved non-porous gown

goggles

62
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When handling toxic drugs, use syringes and IV lines with __________ attachments to prevent spilage.

screw-on

63
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Discard needles and syringes with toxic drugs into ?

sealable plastic bags

64
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Who should never handle antineoplastic drugs, clean cages, or handle waste from animals during cancer treatment?

pregnant women

65
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Dosing of antineoplastic drugs is based on ?

body surface area

66
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What are the most common chemotherapy drugs?

carboplatin

chlorambucil

cisplatin

doxorubicin

lomustine

mitoxantrone

vinca alkaloids

67
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What is carboplatin used to treat?

osteosarcoma

melanoma

carcinomas

sarcomas

68
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Carboplatin acts very similar to cisplatin, but has ?

less renal toxicity

69
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What can increase the risk of nephrotoxicity and cause vaccines to not be as effective when combined with carboplatin?

aminoglycosides

70
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What is the use of chlorambucil?

used in place of cyclophosphamide when patients are intolerant of it

71
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What is the adverse affect of chlorambucil?

GI toxicity

72
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Do not given chlorambucil with ?

food

73
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Chlorambucil tablets should be stored in the ?

refrigerator

74
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What is cisplatin used for?

carcinomas

sarcomas

sarcoids

cutaneous neoplasia

75
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What is an adverse effect of cisplatin?

nephrotoxicity

76
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What can increase risk of nephrotoxicity when it interacts with cisplatin?

aminoglycosides and amphotericin

77
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What can increase risk of ototoxicity when it interacts with cisplatin?

furosemide

78
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Cisplatin cannot be used in _____. Why?

cats

causes fatal pulmonary edema and pleural effusion if administered systematically

79
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What is the broadest spectrum antineoplastic drug in veterinary medicine?

doxorubicin

80
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What is an adverse effect of doxorubicin?

cardiac toxicity

81
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What can increase risk for cardiotoxicity when it interacts with doxorubicin?

calcium-channel blockers

82
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What can increase elimination when it interacts with doxorubicin?

phenobarbital

83
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What is lomustine used to treat?

CNS neoplasms

lymphomas

mast cell tumors

rescue agent for lymphosarcoma

84
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What is the use for mitoxantrone?

lymphomas resistant to other drugs

85
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What are the adverse affects of mitoxantrone?

turns the sclera of the eye and urine a blue-green color after therapy

mild to moderate GI toxicity

86
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What is the primary use of Vinblastine sulfate?

mast tumor cells in dogs and cats

rescue therapy in lymphosarcoma

87
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What is an adverse effect of Vinblastine sulfate?

local phlebitis and pain

88
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What is Vincristine sulfate used to treat?

transmissible venereal tumors

immune mediated thrombocytopenia

89
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What are the two main categories of urinary incontinence?

neurologic and non-neurologic

90
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What urinary incontinence may result from trauma to the spinal cord, tumors, or degeneration of the nervous system tracts?

neurologic

91
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What does non-neurologic urinary incontinence include?

hormone-responsive incontinence

stress incontinence

urge incontinence

ectopic ureters

bladder overdistention

92
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What makes up the bladder wall?

smooth muscle known as detrusor muscle

93
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What is defined as loss of voluntary control of urination resulting in leakage of urine?

urinary incontinence

94
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What is the most common cause of UI in dogs?

ectopic ureters

95
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Ectopic ureters are uncommon in ?

male dogs (often asymptomatic)

96
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What is hypocontractile bladder?

detrusor atony (unable to generate sufficient intravesicular pressure to initiate or complete voiding)

97
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What is hypercontractile bladder?

urge incontinence (normal filling and storage of urine in the bladder is lost)

98
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What is the most common cause of incontinence in adult female dogs? Usually occurs months to years after neutering.

urethral incompetence

99
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Phenylpropanolamine (Proin is FDA approved) is an ?

alpha 2 adrenergic agonist

100
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Phenylpropanolamine is effective in ____________ of female dogs with urethral incompetence.

85-90%