GI exam 1

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NSAIDs are bad for the GI system because of inhibition of...

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1

NSAIDs are bad for the GI system because of inhibition of...

PGE1 and PGE2

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2

first-line agents for the treatment of IBS in both men and women

antispasmodics (dicyclomine, hycosamine)

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3

anti-TNF mAbs block the endogenous TNF activities, inducing ________________________

apoptosis

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4

first-line treatment of crohn's

aminosalicylates (pentaza, asacol, lialda, rowasa)

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5

second-line drugs for the induction of remission of crohn's

budesonide, methotrexate, azathioprine, 6-mercaptopurine

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6

second-line drugs for the maintenance of crohn's

methotrexate, azathioprine, 6-mercaptopurine

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7

MOA of H2 blockers

block the nocturnal/fasting acid secretion by blocking H2 on parietal cells

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8

MOA of antacids

increases intragastric pH

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9

MOA of PPIs

inhibit acid secretion by antagonizing the H+/K+ ATPase enzyme, antimicrobial

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10

MOA of sucrafalate

provides a physical barrier on GI ulcers

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11

MOA of bismuth compounds

antibacterial and cytoprotective

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12

FDA-approved medication to treat IBS-D in women

alosetron

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13

MOA of alosetron

5-HT3 antagonist

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14

why is diphenoxylate administered w/ atropine?

decreases the abuse potential on the opioid receptor

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15

cephalic phase stimuli cause _____________ activation through the vagus nerve

parasympathetic

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16

MOA of benzamides (metoclopramide/domperidone)

D2 receptor blockade, upper GI stimulation

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17

MOA of phenothiazine (promethazine)

D2 blockade (anti-emetic), antihistamine (sedative)

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18

which two receptors when activated result in the secretion of Cl-rich fluids into the gut and thus increase motility and decrease transit times

CFTR, ClC-2

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19

MOA of lbuprostone, linaclotide

stimulate Cl channel activation and secretion into the intestines

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20

MOA of loperamide

peripheral mu receptor agonist; slows motility, increases fluid absorption

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21

MOA of bulk-forming laxatives (metamucil)

absorb water in the GI tract to move materials through

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22

which trio of medication classes are given in CINV?

corticosteroids, NK1 RA's, 5HT3 antagonists

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23

what "bug" is the primary factor in PUD?

h. pylori

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24

MOA of mesalamines

coat 5ASA with pH-sensitive resins that allow its release in the ileum and proximal colon

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25

according to the Mayo Clinic Rome criteria, the diagnosis criteria for IBS involves the presence of abdominal pain and discomfort lasting on average _____ day per week in the last 3 months

1

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26

__________________ receptors in the GI tract are mostly inhibitory to motility and the upper GI tract

dopamine

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27

in the hospital, may patients are given IV ____________________ to prevent stress-related gastric ulcers

H2 antagonists

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28

MOA of phenothiazines (promethazine)

anti-emetic via dopamine and muscarinic receptor blockade, sedative via antihistamine activity

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29

what two factors account for the vast majority of all peptic ulcers?

h. pylori and nsaids

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30

MOA of chloride channel activators (linaclotide, lubriprisone)

agonism of guanylyl cyclase C on the intestinal epithelial cell surface, activating the CFTR causing Cl secretion into the gut lumen

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31

first line drugs for induction/maintenance of ulcerative colitis

aminosalicylates (pentaza, asacol, lialda, rowasa)

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32

the high lumenal function of the CFTR drives the pH of the duodenum ____________ (higher or lower)

higher

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33

___________________ is a digestive enzyme in the small intestine that may cause pancreatitis, so the body needs protective mechanisms against it

trypsin

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34

mechanisms for pancreatic protection from trypsin include...

granule storage, auto-cleavage, and SPINK1 deactivation

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35

digestive enzymes (aka proteases) are stored in acinar cells and cause _________________ through parasympathetic nervous action

zymogen release

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36

secretin regulates digestive pH through controlling the action of...

CFTR

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37

the major stimulatory regulator of digestive enzymes is...

acetylcholine

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38

nutrition goals should be...

patient specific

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39

______________________ are a quick, simple, noninvasive way to identify malnutrition risk factors in the general population

nutrition screenings

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40

___________________________ include height, weight, waist circumference, limb size, etc.

anthropometric measurements

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41

_______________________ is related to prolonged, inadequate intake of nutrients and proteins

starvation malnutrition

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42

______________________ is related to inflammatory disease states like RA, IBS, and cystic fibrosis

chronic disease-related malnutrition

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43

what medications can contribute to weight gain?

insulin, sulfonylureas, beta-blockers, clozapine, olanzapine, corticosteroids, lithium, anticonvulsants, antiretrovirals

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44

what medications contribute to malnutrition?

stimulants, chemo, antacids, sulfasalazine, metformin

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45

fat soluble vitamins

ADEK

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46

water soluble vitamins

thiamine, C, B, niacin, folic, biotin

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47

what is niacin used for?

dyslipidemia, high TG

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48

what is recommended for women who are trying to conceive or who are pregnant?

folic acid

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49

what is the recommended dose of folic acid?

0.4 mg/day

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50

patients receiving ___________ nutrition must have a functional GI tract

enteral

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51

patients receiving _____________ nutrition do not need a functional GI tract

parenteral

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52

medications _____________ (can/cannot) be administered with enteral nutrition

can

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53

_______________ nutrition requires routine monitoring, including vitals, weight, intake/output, n/v, GRVs, electrolytes, and LFTs

enteral

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54

a variety of enteral nutrition formulations exist to meet patient needs, such as high _____________ or high caloric density

protein

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55

both parenteral and enteral nutrition pose a risk for...

refeeding syndrome

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56

enteral nutrition side effects include...

electrolyte imbalances, glucose-control, refeeding syndrome, tube occlusion, n/v, diarrhea, constipation

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57

large volume resuscitation uses isotonic balanced crystalloid fluids including...

plasma-lyte, lactated ringers

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58

_________ is used for glucose supplementation or hypernatremia

D5W

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59

_________________ is used for hyponatremia and increased intracranial pressure

3% NaCl

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60

____________ should not be utilized for large volume resuscitation and is indicated for hypernatremia

1/2 NS

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61

________________ is an isotonic crystalloid used for fluid resuscitation

NS

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62

albumin and dextran are...

colloids

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63

typically, __________ is not used in patient care due to bleeding risk

dextran

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64

______________ is used with large-volume paracentesis procedures to control third spacing

albumin

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