State Board Midterm (101-250 questions)

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159 Terms

1
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What type of bangs should a stylist create for a client wanting bangs long enough to be pulled back?

Center swept bangs.

2
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What is a benefit of using the shear-over-comb technique?

It allows for short tapers that go from extremely short length to longer length.

3
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How does texturizing by point cutting differ from effilating?

Point cutting uses the tips of the shears, while effilating uses the blades of the shears.

4
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Which razor texturizing technique creates a softer perimeter on hair?

Free-hand slicing.

5
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Which basic texturizing technique effectively works on curly hair?

Free-hand notching.

6
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How should clippers be used to create a flat top or square shape haircut?

Use the clipper-over-comb technique.

7
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What is a benefit of using length guard attachments on clippers?

They are an easy way to quickly perform a short haircut.

8
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What element is important for a strong foundation in haircutting?

Angles.

9
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What is the term for the direction in which hair grows from the scalp?

Growth pattern.

10
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What happens if the tension in shears is too loose?

It will allow the shears to fold the hair.

11
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Which type of comb is primarily used to detangle the hair?

Wide tooth comb.

12
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What does tension in haircutting refer to?

The amount of pressure applied when combing or holding a subsection.

13
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What is the best way to maintain control of a subsection when cutting with a vertical or diagonal line?

Palm to palm.

14
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What helps to reduce strain on fingers while combing hair?

Palming the shears.

15
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What technique involves gliding fingers and shears along the hair's edge to remove length?

Slide cutting.

16
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What is NOT a reason to study braiding and braid extensions?

Employment laws regarding natural hairstyles are becoming stricter.

17
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What two considerations must be taken during consultations for braiding services?

Identifying hair condition and client desires.

18
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What does alopecia refer to?

Abnormal hair loss.

19
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Which brush is used to stimulate the scalp and remove dirt from locs?

Boar-bristle brush.

20
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What comb type is best for separating wet curly hair?

Double-tooth comb.

21
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What is a hackle in hairstyling?

A board containing fine, upright nails for combing extensions.

22
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What is the best recommendation for standalone extensions for a natural look?

Kanekalon.

23
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Which tool is effective for removing tangles from wet and wavy hair?

Vent brush.

24
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What type of braids does a client want when asking for plaits?

Single braids.

25
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What is the process for creating spiral curls on synthetic single braids?

Wrap the ends with a curling rod and dip in hot water.

26
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What type of braids are created around the head using an inverted braid technique?

Halo braids.

27
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What method integrates extensions into single braids?

Three-strand underhand.

28
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What style showcases mostly faux hair when using extensions?

Tree braids.

29
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What type of brush is effective for releasing tangles in both short and long hair?

Square paddle.

30
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Which blow dryer attachment loosens curls in textured hair?

Comb nozzle.

31
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What durable and soft synthetic fiber is used for hair extensions?

Kanekalon.

32
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What term describes the invisible braid technique?

Inverted technique.

33
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Which braids are also known as canerows?

Cornrows.

34
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What statement about loc extensions is NOT true?

They can only be created with an extension braid wrapped in Afro-textured hair.

35
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What is NOT a reason to study chemical texture services?

Condition of employment for hairstylists.

36
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How do chemical hair relaxers work?

They increase hair's pH to an alkaline state to restructure the cortex.

37
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Which active ingredient causes higher frequency of curl reversion in relaxers?

Sodium hydroxide.

38
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What is true about no-lye relaxers?

They have a lower pH and are suitable for scalp sensitivities.

39
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What process does lanthionization describe?

The permanent straightening of hair by removing bonded sulfur atoms.

40
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How does thio neutralization differ from hydroxide neutralization?

Thio neutralization involves oxidation.

41
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Which treatment should a client who wants to straighten coarse, frizzy hair consider?

Keratin treatment.

42
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Why should metal clips be avoided with relaxer products?

They can cause a chemical reaction.

43
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What item prevents direct contact between the client and the chemical cape?

Neck strips.

44
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Under what condition can a texture service be performed?

Strand analysis indicates low porosity and high elasticity.

45
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What should caution against when a client consumes lots of caffeine?

It increases blood circulation, risking irritation from relaxers.

46
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What condition would lead a cosmetologist to decline relaxer services?

A pins-and-needles sensation on the scalp.

47
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How does a relaxer retouch differ from a virgin relaxer application?

Retouch is used only on new hair growth.

48
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Where should a virgin relaxer be applied first?

The midshaft.

49
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Which perm type is recommended for non-porous hair?

Alkaline/cold wave.

50
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What is the active ingredient in acid waves?

Glycerol monothioglycolate (GMTG).

51
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How do alkaline perms differ from acid perms?

Alkaline perms have a higher pH.

52
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When does most processing for permanent waving occur?

Within 5 to 10 minutes.

53
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What must hair solutions have enough of to perm coarse hair?

Hydrogen ions.

54
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What percentage of disulfide bonds are broken and rebuilt correctly in perms?

50 percent.

55
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Which placement minimizes stress and tension on hair during perms?

Perpendicular to the base.

56
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What prevents fishhooks in perming?

End papers.

57
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What describes proper winding technique on perm rods?

One end paper under and one above the base panel.

58
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How many rods are used in base sections for perm wraps?

One rod; determined by the length and width of the rod.

59
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What chemical process loosens extremely curly hair using thio?

Soft curl permanent.

60
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What type of wrap should be used for uniform curls in thick hair?

Spiral wrap with on-base placement.

61
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Where should bands be placed on perm rods?

On the top.

62
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What should clients do if perm solution drips into their eyes?

Flush the eyes thoroughly with cool water.

63
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Where should protective cream be applied before a perm?

Around hairline, nape, and both ears.

64
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What is NOT a part of a professional perm consultation?

Signing an agreement for follow-up services.

65
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What should clients do to preserve moisture after a soft curl perm?

Wear a processing cap while sleeping.

66
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What is the proper technique for unwinding test curls in perms?

Unwind the curl two or three turns.

67
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What is the main active ingredient in acid-balanced waving lotions?

Glyceryl monothioglycolate.

68
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What indicates hair is overprocessed?

Too many broken disulfide bonds.

69
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What is the process that stops the permanent wave solution's action?

Thio neutralization.

70
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What do most common neutralizers contain?

Hydrogen peroxide.

71
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What combines thio relaxer use with flat ironing?

Japanese thermal straightening.

72
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What should hydroxide-treated hair NOT be treated with?

Thio relaxers.

73
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What does infection control refer to?

Methods used to reduce pathogen transmission.

74
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What destroys all microbial life?

Sterilization.

75
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What is usually regulated by state agencies rather than federal?

Setting licensing guidelines and enforcing conduct.

76
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What does the EPA regulate in the workplace?

Safe manufacture of chemical products.

77
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What is encouraged for beauty professionals concerning client health?

Refer clients with infections to physicians.

78
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What is essential for preventing infection spread?

Knowing proper procedures.

79
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What defines transmission of disease?

The process by which pathogens move between individuals.

80
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How does the immune system prevent transmission?

It prevents illness.

81
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What is true about direct and indirect transmission?

Direct transmission requires contact; indirect does not.

82
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What is true about diseases spread by both direct and indirect transmission?

Indirect diseases can survive longer away from a host.

83
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How do respiratory droplets differ from airborne transmission?

Respiratory droplets do not stay airborne as long.

84
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What is NOT required of salon disinfectants?

They must be hypoallergenic.

85
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Most bacteria are considered what?

Nonpathogenic.

86
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What is a microorganism?

Any organism of microscopic size.

87
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How many types of bacteria and what are their primary types?

Thousands; two primary types.

88
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What do pathogenic bacteria do?

Cause disease or infection.

89
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What indicates a bacterial infection?

The presence of pus.

90
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What does inflammation NOT indicate?

Pus.

91
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What is true of communicable diseases?

They spread from person to person.

92
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What occurs when doctors diagnose a disease?

They identify its nature.

93
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What is an occupational disease?

Sickness from overexposure to workplace chemicals.

94
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What is not true of staphylococci?

Most strains make us very ill.

95
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What is NOT caused by a virus?

Strep throat.

96
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What type of organism is mildew?

Fungi.

97
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What are disease-causing microorganisms in the body called?

Bloodborne pathogens.

98
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How is HIV primarily spread?

Through blood.

99
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What is one type of parasite in salons?

Pediculosis capitis.

100
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What is NOT true of biofilms?

They are highly susceptible to the body's defenses.