Anatomy Lecture – Cartilage, Bone, Skeleton & Joints

A comprehensive set of 120 question-and-answer flashcards covering respiratory anatomy, digestive organs, integument, reproductive systems, cartilage & bone structure and function, ossification processes, skeletal anatomy (axial & appendicular), bone markings, joint classifications, specific synovial joints, and common movements and pathologies. Designed to aid exam preparation on the full lecture content.

What airway immediately follows the larynx in the respiratory tract?

The trachea.

Name the three successive branches of the right bronchial tree after the trachea.

Right main bronchus → right lobar bronchus → right segmental bronchus.

Give three examples of accessory digestive organs.

Parotid salivary gland, liver, pancreas (other acceptable: teeth, tongue, gallbladder, etc.).

Which organs make up the gastrointestinal (alimentary) tract?

Oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, anus.

What muscle causes ‘goose-bumps’ by pulling on hair follicles?

The arrector pili muscle.

Which skin layer contains the papillary and reticular layers?

The dermis.

List the major structures of the female reproductive tract in order from ovary to external opening.

Ovary → uterine tube → uterus → cervix → vagina → vaginal orifice.

What male duct carries sperm from the epididymis toward the urethra?

The ductus (vas) deferens.

Name the three pairs of salivary glands.

Parotid, submandibular, and sublingual glands.

Which two tissue types are the primary components of the skeletal system?

Cartilage and bone.

What are the three major types of cartilage?

Hyaline cartilage, fibrocartilage, and elastic cartilage.

State four functions of cartilage.

Support soft tissues, form C-shaped rings in trachea, provide smooth gliding surfaces at joints, serve as models for bone formation (also cushioning/protection).

List five major functions of bone.

Support & protection; movement; hemopoiesis; storage of minerals (Ca²⁺, PO₄³⁻) and energy; serve as attachment sites for muscles.

Classify bones into four structural categories.

Long, short, flat, and irregular bones.

What term describes the shaft of a long bone?

The diaphysis.

Where is spongy bone found within a long bone?

Inside the epiphyses, deep to the compact bone and just under the articular cartilage.

Which membrane lines the medullary cavity of a long bone?

The endosteum.

What cells build bone matrix?

Osteoblasts.

Which bone cells are responsible for bone resorption?

Osteoclasts.

Name the organic component of bone matrix that provides tensile strength.

Osteoid (collagen fibers and ground substance).

What inorganic crystal mainly accounts for bone hardness?

Hydroxyapatite (calcium phosphate + calcium hydroxide).

The basic structural unit of compact bone is the __.

Osteon (Haversian system).

Trabeculae are characteristic of which type of bone tissue?

Spongy (cancellous) bone.

Intramembranous ossification forms what kinds of bones?

Flat bones of the skull, some facial bones, mandible, and part of clavicle.

Endochondral ossification begins with a model made of what tissue?

Hyaline cartilage.

What is the remnant of the epiphyseal plate in an adult long bone?

The epiphyseal line.

Name the five zones of the epiphyseal plate (from epiphysis toward diaphysis).

Resting cartilage, proliferating cartilage, hypertrophic cartilage, calcified cartilage, ossification.

Growth in bone width occurs where?

At the periosteum (via appositional growth).

Define a stress fracture.

A thin break caused by repetitive loads, often difficult to see on X-ray.

Which fracture type results in the bone breaking but not piercing the skin?

A simple (closed) fracture (opposite of compound/open).

Name the first step in fracture repair.

Formation of a fracture hematoma.

What temporary tissue forms a ‘soft callus’ in bone healing?

Fibrocartilaginous callus.

Give two examples of bone surface markings that are openings.

Foramen and canal (other acceptable: fissure, sinus).

How many bones make up the axial skeleton?

Eighty (80) bones.

List three principal functions of the axial skeleton.

Supports & protects organs, houses special senses, provides muscle attachment sites, participates in hemopoiesis.

How many cranial bones form the skull?

Eight cranial bones.

Which single bone articulates with every other cranial bone?

The sphenoid bone.

What is the large opening in the occipital bone for passage of the spinal cord?

The foramen magnum.

Define a suture.

An immovable fibrous joint between skull bones.

Which skull bone contains the cribriform plate for olfactory nerve passage?

The ethmoid bone.

Which bone of the skull is the only one that moves?

The mandible.

Name the three auditory ossicles (ear bones).

Malleus, incus, stapes. (Note: not in slides but basic knowledge.)

How many cervical vertebrae are there?

Seven (C1–C7).

Which cervical vertebra is called the atlas?

C1.

What unique feature does the axis (C2) possess?

The dens (odontoid process).

Identify the abnormal spinal curvature commonly called ‘hunchback’.

Kyphosis.

True ribs are numbered ____ through ____.

1 through 7.

Floating ribs lack an attachment to what structure?

The sternum (no anterior attachment).

What bone is the only one that does not articulate with any other bone?

The hyoid bone.

How many bones compose the pectoral girdle?

Four (2 clavicles, 2 scapulae).

Which fossa on the scapula articulates with the humerus?

The glenoid cavity (fossa).

What mnemonic helps remember the carpal bones?

‘Stop Letting Those People Touch The Cadaver’s Hand.’

The thumb is also called the __.

Pollex.

Which three bones comprise an os coxae before complete fusion?

Ilium, ischium, and pubis.

List two major differences between male and female pelves.

Female pelvis is wider with a larger subpubic angle; male pelvis is narrower and more vertical (others: greater sciatic notch width, oval vs. triangular obturator foramen, etc.).

The largest bone in the body is the __.

Femur.

What bone forms the kneecap?

The patella.

Name the distal medial projection of the tibia felt at the ankle.

Medial malleolus.

How many tarsal bones are in one foot?

Seven.

Which tarsal bone forms the heel?

Calcaneus.

What are the three arches of the foot?

Medial longitudinal, lateral longitudinal, and transverse arches.

Define an articulation.

A joint—where two or more bones meet.

Which structural joint class is most movable but least stable?

Synovial joints.

Give two examples of fibrous joints.

Sutures and syndesmoses (gomphoses also acceptable).

What type of cartilage forms synchondroses?

Hyaline cartilage.

Name the two layers of a synovial joint capsule.

Fibrous layer (outer) and synovial membrane (inner).

What fluid nourishes and lubricates articular cartilage?

Synovial fluid.

What is a bursa?

A synovial fluid-filled sac that reduces friction between structures.

Identify a uniaxial pivot joint in the body.

The atlanto-axial joint (between atlas and axis) or proximal radioulnar joint.

Which joint type permits flexion-extension only (like a door hinge)?

Hinge joint (uniaxial).

The thumb (first carpometacarpal) joint is what synovial subtype?

A saddle joint (biaxial).

What synovial joint allows the greatest range of motion?

Ball-and-socket joint (e.g., shoulder, hip).

Moving a body part away from the midline is called __.

Abduction.

Which movement turns the palm posteriorly when the elbow is flexed?

Pronation.

Elevation and depression are movements primarily of which bone?

The mandible or the scapula (both acceptable).

Define dorsiflexion.

Movement of the ankle joint that brings the dorsum of the foot toward the shin.

Name the two bones forming the temporomandibular joint (TMJ).

The temporal bone and the mandible.

What three structures are torn in the ‘unhappy triad’ knee injury?

Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL), tibial (medial) collateral ligament (MCL), and medial meniscus.

Which ligament connects the femoral head to the acetabulum?

The ligament of the head of the femur (ligamentum teres).

What two articulations make up the elbow joint?

Humeroulnar hinge and humeroradial joint.

Name the ankle (talocrural) joint bones.

Tibia, fibula, and talus.

What disease involves urate crystal deposition in joints?

Gouty arthritis.

Which chronic degenerative joint disease is known as ‘wear-and-tear arthritis’?

Osteoarthritis.

In rheumatoid arthritis, which synovial component is primarily inflamed?

The synovial membrane.

What is the primary function of the appendicular skeleton?

Movement (leverage for muscles).

Which bone marking term denotes a rounded articular projection supported on a neck?

Head.

What do the terms sulcus and fossa have in common?

Both are depressions/grooves in bone.

Name the connective tissue membrane covering outer bone surfaces except at joints.

Periosteum.

What is hemopoiesis and where does it occur?

Blood cell production; occurs in red bone marrow (primarily spongy bone).

Which bone cell type is a stem cell?

Osteoprogenitor cell.

What is the difference between a greenstick and comminuted fracture?

Greenstick is an incomplete break in children; comminuted is bone shattered into many fragments.

At what zone of the growth plate does mitotic proliferation occur?

Zone of proliferating cartilage (Zone 2).

Which hormone imbalance commonly causes achondroplastic dwarfism?

It is a genetic disorder affecting fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3), not a simple hormone imbalance (accept: FGFR3 mutation inhibits cartilage growth).

Which feature of a rib articulates with the transverse process of a vertebra?

Tubercle (with articular facet).

Define the term ‘meatus’ when referring to skull anatomy.

A canal-like passageway through a bone.

What are fontanelles and why are they important?

Soft spots in an infant skull where intramembranous ossification is incomplete; allow skull deformation during birth and brain growth.

Which ligament stabilizes the radius against the ulna at the elbow?

Anular (annular) ligament.

What is the function of the acetabular labrum?

Deepens the hip socket to improve joint stability.

Which bone bears the deltoid tuberosity?

Humerus.

Name the depression on the anterior distal femur that articulates with the patella.

Patellar surface (trochlea).