Ch. 19 Lehninger biochem test bank

1. Almost all of the oxygen (O2) one consumes in breathing is converted to:

A) acetyl-CoA.

B) carbon dioxide (CO2).

C) carbon monoxide and then to carbon dioxide.

D) None of the above

E) water.

E

2. Which of the following electron carriers is not able to transfer one electron at a time?

A) NADH

B) FMN

C) FAD

D) Ubiquinone

E) Heme

A

3. A new compound isolated from mitochondria is claimed to represent a previously unrecognized carrier in the electron transfer chain. It is given the name coenzyme Z. Which line of evidence do you feel is the least conclusive in assigning this compound a position in the electron transfer chain?

A) Alternate oxidation and reduction of the mitochondrion-bound coenzyme Z can be readily demonstrated.

B) Removal of coenzyme Z from the mitochondria results in a decreased rate of oxygen consumption.

C) The rate of oxidation and reduction of mitochondrion-bound coenzyme is of the same order of magnitude as the overall rate of electron transfer in mitochondria as measured by oxygen consumption.

D) The reduction potential of Z is between that of two compounds known to participate in the electron transport chain

E) When added to a mitochondrial suspension, coenzyme Z is taken up very rapidly and specifically by the mitochondria.

E

4. Antimycin A blocks electron transfer between cytochromes b and c1. If intact mitochondria were incubated with antimycin A, excess NADH, and an adequate supply of O2, which of the following would be found in the oxidized state?

A) Coenzyme Q

B) Cytochrome a3

C) Cytochrome b

D) Cytochrome e

E) Cytochrome f

B

5. Reduced QH2 is not formed by which of the following?

A) Complex I and NADH

B) Complex II and succinate

C) Complex III and cytochrome c

D) Fatty acid oxidation

E) Oxidation of glycerol-3-phosphate

C

6. In the reoxidation of QH2 by purified ubiquinone-cytochrome c reductase (Complex III) from heart muscle, the overall stoichiometry of the reaction requires 2 mol of cytochrome c per mole of QH2 because:

A) cytochrome c is a one-electron acceptor, whereas QH2 is a two-electron donor.

B) cytochrome c is a two-electron acceptor, whereas QH2 is a one-electron donor.

C) cytochrome c is water soluble and operates between the inner and outer mitochondrial membranes

D) heart muscle has a high rate of oxidative metabolism, and therefore requires twice as much cytochrome c as QH2 for electron transfer to proceed normally.

E) two molecules of cytochrome c must first combine physically before they are catalytically active.

A

7. Which of the following is not a feature of complex IV?

A) Cytochrome c is a one-electron donor.

B) Oxygen is a substrate.

C) Copper is an essential metal for the reaction.

D) For every electron passed to complex IV, two protons are consumed from the matrix (N) side.

E) In order to generate two water molecules, complex IV must go through the catalytic cycle two times.

E

8. Which of the following is not true of the proton motive force (pmf)?

A) One component of the pmf is the chemical gradient of protons.

B) One component of the pmf is the charge gradient of protons.

C) Generation of the pmf in mitochondria requires succinate.

D) The pmf is generated by the electron transport chain in mitochondria.

E) The pmf drives ATP synthesis in mitochondria.

C

9. Cyanide, oligomycin, and 2,4-dinitrophenol (DNP) are inhibitors of mitochondrial aerobic phosphorylation. Which of the following statements correctly describes the mode of action of the three inhibitors?

A) Cyanide and 2,4-dinitrophenol inhibit the respiratory chain, and oligomycin inhibits the synthesis of ATP.

B) Cyanide inhibits the respiratory chain, whereas oligomycin and 2,4-dinitrophenol inhibit the synthesis of ATP.

C) Cyanide, oligomycin, and 2,4-dinitrophenol compete with O2 for cytochrome oxidase (complex IV).

D) Oligomycin and cyanide inhibit synthesis of ATP; 2,4-dinitrophenol inhibits the respiratory chain.

E) Oligomycin inhibits the respiratory chain, whereas cyanide and 2,4-dinitrophenol prevent the synthesis of ATP.

B

10. If electron transfer in tightly coupled mitochondria is blocked (with antimycin A) between cytochrome b and cytochrome c1, then:

A) all ATP synthesis will stop.

B) ATP synthesis will continue, but the P/O ratio will drop to one.

C) electron transfer from NADH will cease, but O2 uptake will continue.

D) electron transfer from succinate to O2 will continue unabated.

E) energy diverted from the cytochromes will be used to make ATP, and the P/O ratio will rise.

A

11. In normal mitochondria, the rate of NADH consumption (oxidation) will:

A) be increased in active muscle, decreased in inactive muscle.

B) be very low if the ATP synthase is inhibited, but increase when an uncoupler is added.

C) decrease if mitochondrial ADP is depleted.

D) decrease when cyanide is used to prevent electron transfer through the cytochrome a + a3 complex.

E) All of the above

E

12. Which of the following statements about the chemiosmotic theory is correct?

A) Electron transfer in mitochondria is accompanied by an asymmetric release of protons on one side of the inner mitochondrial membrane.

B) It predicts that oxidative phosphorylation can occur, even in the absence of an intact inner mitochondrial membrance.

C) The effect of uncoupling reagents is a consequence of their ability to carry electrons through membranes.

D) The membrane ATP synthase has no significant role in the chemiosmotic theory.

E) All of the above

A

13. Which of the following statements about the chemiosmotic theory is false?

A) Electron transfer in mitochondria is accompanied by an asymmetric release of protons on one side of the inner mitochondrial membrane.

B) Energy is conserved as a transmembrane pH gradient.

C) Oxidative phosphorylation cannot occur in membrane-free preparations.

D) The effect of uncoupling reagents is a consequence of their ability to carry protons through membranes.

E) The membrane ATPase, which plays an important role in other hypotheses for energy coupling, has no significant role in the chemiosmotic theory.

E

14. Upon the addition of 2,4-dinitrophenol (DNP) to a suspension of mitochondria carrying out oxidative phosphorylation linked to the oxidation of malate, all of the following occur except:

A) oxygen consumption decreases.

B) oxygen consumption increases.

C) the P/O ratio drops from a value of approximately 2.5 to 0.

D) the proton gradient dissipates.

E) the rate of transport of electrons from NADH to O2 becomes maximal.

A

15. Uncoupling of mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation:

A) allows continued mitochondrial ATP formation but halts O2 consumption.

B) halts all mitochondrial metabolism.

C) halts mitochondrial ATP formation but allows continued O2 consumption.

D) slows down the citric acid cycle.

E) slows the conversion of glucose to pyruvate by glycolysis.

C

16. 2,4-Dinitrophenol and oligomycin inhibit mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation. 2,4-Dinitrophenol is an uncoupling agent; oligomycin blocks the ATP synthesis reaction itself. Therefore, 2,4-dinitrophenol will:

A) allow electron transfer in the presence of oligomycin.

B) allow oxidative phosphorylation in the presence of oligomycin.

C) block electron transfer in the presence of oligomycin.

D) diminish O2 consumption in the presence of oligomycin.

E) None of the above

A

17. Which of the following statements about energy conservation in the mitochondrion is false?

A) Drugs that inhibits the ATP synthase will also inhibit the flow of electrons down the chain of carriers.

B) For oxidative phosphorylation to occur, it is essential to have a closed membranous structure with an inside and an outside.

C) The yield of ATP per mole of oxidizable substrate depends on the substrate.

D) Uncouplers (such as dinitrophenol) have exactly the same effect on electron transfer as inhibitors such as cyanide; both block further electron transfer to oxygen.

E) Uncouplers "short circuit" the proton gradient, thereby dissipating the proton motive force as heat.

D

18. Which of the following is correct concerning the mitochondrial ATP synthase?

A) It can synthesize ATP after it is extracted from broken mitochondria.

B) It catalyzes the formation of ATP even though the reaction has a large positive G'°.

C) It consists of Fo and F1 subunits, which are transmembrane (integral) polypeptides.

D) It is actually an ATPase and only catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP.

E) When it catalyzes the ATP synthesis reaction, the G'° is actually close to zero.

E

19. When the delta G'° of the ATP synthesis reaction is measured on the surface of the ATP synthase enzyme, it is found to be close to zero. This is thought to be due to:

A) a very low energy of activation.

B) enzyme-induced oxygen exchange.

C) stabilization of ADP relative to ATP by enzyme binding.

D) stabilization of ATP relative to ADP by enzyme binding.

E) None of the above

D

20. During oxidative phosphorylation, the proton motive force that is generated by electron transport is used to:

A) create a pore in the inner mitochondrial membrane.

B) generate the substrates (ADP and Pi) for the ATP synthase.

C) induce a conformational change in the ATP synthase.

D) oxidize NADH to NAD+.

E) reduce O2 to H2O.

C

21. The oxidation of a particular hydroxy substrate to a keto product by mitochondria has a P/O ratio of less than 2. The initial oxidation step is very likely directly coupled to the:

A) oxidation of a flavoprotein.

B) oxidation of a pyridine nucleotide.

C) reduction of a flavoprotein.

D) reduction of a pyridine nucleotide.

E) reduction of cytochrome a3.

C

22. The relative concentrations of ATP and ADP control the cellular rates of:

A) glycolysis.

B) oxidative phosphorylation.

C) pyruvate oxidation.

D) the citric acid cycle.

E) All of the above

E

23. The rate of oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria is controlled primarily by:

A) feedback inhibition by CO2.

B) the availability of NADH from the TCA cycle.

C) the concentration of citrate (or) the glycerol-3-phosphate shuttle.

D) the mass-action ratio of the ATD-ADP system.

E) the presence of thermogenin.

D

24. Which of the following is not controlled by hypoxia-inducible factor (HIF-1)?

A) Glucose transport

B) Glycolysis

C) Citric acid cycle

D) Compex I of the respiratory chain

E) Complex IV of the respiratory chain

D

25. Mammals produce heat by using the endogenous uncoupling agent:

A) the small molecule 2-4-Dinitrophenol synthesized by the cell.

B) the protein thermogenin.

C) the protein thioredoxin.

D) the protein cytochrome c.

E) a modified form of the FoF1 ATPase.

B

26. Which one of the following best describes the role of mitochondria in apoptosis?

A) Escape of cytochrome c into the cytoplasm

B) Increased rate of fatty acid -oxidation

C) Increase in permeability of outer membrane

D) Uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation

E) Both A and C are correct.

E

27. Mutations in mitochondrial genes play a role in each of the following diseases except:

A) adult onset diabetes.

B) cystic fibrosis.

C) hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

D) Leber's hereditary optic neuropathy.

E) myoclonic epilepsy.

B

28. Which one of the following statements about human mitochondria is true?

A) About 900 mitochondrial proteins are encoded by nuclear genes.

B) Mitochondrial genes are inherited from both maternal and paternal sources.

C) rRNA and tRNA are imported from the cytoplasm and used in mitochondrial protein synthesis.

D) The mitochondrial genome codes for all proteins found in mitochondria.

E) The mitochondrial genome is not subject to mutations.

A

29. In photophosphorylation, absorption of light energy in chloroplast "light reactions" leads to:

A) absorption of CO2 and release of O2.

B) absorption of O2 and release of CO2.

C) hydrolysis of ATP and reduction of NADP+.

D) synthesis of ATP and oxidation of NADPH.

E) use of iron-sulfur proteins.

A

30. Which of the following statements about the light reactions in photosynthetic plants is false?

A) A membrane-bound ATPase couples ATP synthesis to electron transfer.

B) No CO2 is fixed in the light reactions.

C) The ultimate electron acceptor is O2.

D) The ultimate source of electrons for the process is H2O.

E) There are two distinct photosystems, linked together by an electron transfer chain.

B

31. The light reactions in photosynthetic higher plants:

A) do not require chlorophyll.

B) produce ATP and consume NADH.

C) require the action of a single reaction center.

D) result in the splitting of H2O, yielding O2.

E) serve to produce light so that plants can see underground.

D

32. Photosynthetic phosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation appear to be generally similar processes, both consisting of ATP synthesis coupled to the transfer of electrons along an electron carrier chain. Which of the following is not true of both processes?

A) Both contain cytochromes and flavins in their electron carrier chains.

B) Both processes are associated with membranous elements of the cell.

C) Both use oxygen as a terminal electron acceptor.

D) Each represents the major route of ATP synthesis in those cells in which it is found.

E) Protons are pumped from the inside to the outside of both mitochondria and chloroplast membranes

C

33. Oxidative phosphorylation and photophosphorylation share all of the following except:

A) chlorophyll.

B) involvement of cytochromes.

C) participation of quinones.

D) proton pumping across a membrane to create electrochemical potential.

E) use of iron-sulfur proteins.

A

34. The experimental determination of the effectiveness of light of different colors in promoting photosynthesis is called the:

A) absorption spectrum.

B) action spectrum.

C) difference spectrum.

D) reflectance spectrum.

E) refraction spectrum.

B

35. In what order do the following five steps occur in the photochemical reaction centers?

1) Excitation of the chlorophyll a molecule at the reaction center

2) Replacement of the electron in the reaction center chlorophyll

3) Light excitation of antenna chlorophyll molecule

4) Passage of excited electron to electron-transfer chain

5) Exiton transfer to neighboring chlorophyll

A) 1-2-3-4-5

B) 3-2-5-4-1

C) 3-5-1-4-2

D) 4-2-3-5-1

E) 5-4-3-2-1

C

36. Which one of the following is true about reaction centers?

A) Cyanobacteria and plants have two reaction centers arranged in tandem.

B) Cyanobacteria contain a single reaction center of the Fe-S type.

C) Green sulfur bacteria have two reaction centers arranged in tandem.

D) Plant photosystems have a single reaction center of the pheophytin-quinone type.

E) Purple bacteria contain a single reaction center of the Fe-S type.

A

37. In the photolytic cleavage of water by the oxygen-evolving complex [2H2O -->4 H+ + 4e- + O2], how many photons of light at a wavelength of 680 nm are required?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 4

D) 6

E) 8

C

38. Place the following electron-carriers into the proper order as found in plant chloroplasts.

1) Cytochrome b6f complex

2) P680

3) P700

4) Plastocyanin

5) NADPH

A) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5

B) 2, 4, 3, 1, 5

C) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5

D) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5

E) 3, 4, 2, 1, 5

D

39. Which of the following is not true about cyclic electron flow?

A) Cyclic electron flow produces more NADPH per photon than noncyclic electron flow.

B) Cyclic electron flow involves only PSI.

C) Plastocyanin is required for cyclic electron flow.

D) Cyclic electron flow leads to the build-up of a proton gradient.

E) Cyclic electron flow does not produce O2.

A

40. Cyclic electron flow in chloroplasts produces:

A) ATP and O2, but not NADPH.

B) ATP, but not NADPH or O2.

C) NADPH and ATP, but not O2.

D) NADPH, but not ATP or O2.

E) O2, but not ATP or NADPH.

B

41. Which one of the following statements about photophosphorylation is false?

A) It can be uncoupled from electron flow by agents that dissipate the proton gradient.

B) The difference in pH between the luminal and stromal side of the thylakoid membrane is 3 pH units.

C) The luminal side of the thylakoid membrane has a higher pH than the stromal side.

D) The number of ATPs formed per oxygen molecule is about three.

E) The reaction centers, electron carriers, and ATP-forming enzymes are located in the thylakoid membrane.

C

42. Cyclic electron flow in chloroplasts produces:

A) ATP and O2, but not NADPH.

B) ATP, but not NADPH or O2.

C) NADPH and ATP, but not O2.

D) NADPH, but not ATP or O2.

E) O2, but not ATP or NADPH.

B

43. Which of the following is not found in modern cyanobacteria?

A) PSI

B) PSII

C) NADH dehydrogenase complex I

D) Oxygen-reducing complex IV

E) Mitochondria

E