Pharmacology Final Review

Pharmacology

the science of dealing with the properties of drugs and their effects on living systems.

Clinical pharmacology

A branch of pharmacology that deals directly with the effectiveness and safety of drugs in the clinical setting.

Dose

is the amount of drug given at one time

dosage

the amount of drug given, the route of administration, the interval between doses, and the duration of therapy

efficancy

the ability of a drug to control or cure an illness

minimum effective concentration

lowest concentration that produces the desired drug effect

ED50

the dose that was effective in 50% of animals

Therapeutic range

the drug concentrations associated with efficency and not toxicity

Potency

the amount of drug needed to achieve a specified biological effect. it is seldom of medical significance.

PLease chose the proprietary name

Albon

Type B reaction

classified as an adverse event that is idiosyncratic, unpredicatable, and pften non- dose dependant.

Type A reaction

classified as an adverse event that can be anticipated based on the known mechanism of the drug, and is usually dose- dependant

Endogenous agent

substance that naturally produced in the body and it induces a physiological action

Antagonist

a substance that blocks the action of an agonist

Competitive antagonist

a substance that binds to the same site as an agonist but doesn't activate it. Therefore, blocking the agonist action. it is used to prevent activity of drugs and to reverse effects of drugs.

Partial agonist

this binds to more than one type of receptor, and causes an effect at one receptor and no effect less pronounced effect at another

Pure agonist

this binds to one or more types of receptors and causes certain effects

Agonist- antagonist

this means that the drug may have agonist activity at one receptor site while simultaneously producing an antagonist activity at another site

Drug metabolism occurs primareily in the...

Liver

True or False: Because of the "first pass effect," a large portion of orally administered medications is inactivated by the liver before it enters circulation. This is why oral doses tend to be smaller than injectable doses.

False

When writing out a dose of four tenths of a milligram, which is the correct way to write the dose.

0.4mg

True or False: all ethical products must be sold through Licensed Veterinarians. It is considered illegal to sale.

False

Pesticides and topical flea and tick products are regulated by

EPA

Oral or parenterally administered products are regulated by

FDA

Regulates veterinary biologics (vaccines)

USDA

Enforces the Controlled Substance Act of 1970, and it's subsequent amendments

DEA

Refills for a non- controlled precription drug may be authorized by the veterinarian for a maximum of ________ from date on the original precription

12 months

There is a _______ refill limit for a controlled prescription drug

6 month

True or False: When a OTC product is used extra- label in animals, it does not have to be treated as a precription drug in accordance with the prvisions of AMDUCA.

False

If there is a veterinary product available, do you have to chose that product over humanapproved product when you are treating a non-food animal?

No

A compounded product is...

- not for resale

- based on individual need

- not a duplication of a commercially available product

Schedule II

Drugs in this category have a current accepted medical use for treatment in the united states but which have a high potential for abuse. This abuse may lead to severe psychological or physical dependance

Schedule V

Drugs with the lowest potential for abuse of those scheduled as controlled drugs

Schedule I

Chemical substances that have a high potential for abuse and have no ligitimate medical use in treatment in the United States

Schedule III

Drugs that are accepted in medical use in the united states and have less potential for abuse than the substances in other schedules.

Schedule IV

Drugs with a low potential for abuse relative to substances in other schedules. They have a current accepted use and a limited physical or physiological dependance potential

The DEA requires that controlled substance records be kept for...

2 years

True or False: When a humane society obtains DEA registration, the veterinarian who obtained the registration is responsible. The veterinarian can use the same registration for both his clinic and the humane society. This makes record keeping easier for him;.

False

Outdated, damaged, or contaminated CS must be disposed of, and we must follow federal regulations and submit...

DEA form 41

Schedule II drugs must be ordered with

DEA form 222

True or False: If a mistake is made on the DEA form when ordering drugs, it can be corrected only by using lipid paper

False

__________ drugs cannot be refilled.

Schedule II

During repolarization, _________ moves out of the cell.

Potassium

__________ is the normal protective mechanism designed to remove toxic substances or what the body percieves to be toxic.

Emesis

During the "reset time" the ventricles relax and repolarize in an anticipation of the next depolarization wave. Which wave does this represent on the ECG omplex?

T wave

True or False: Centerally acting drugs work on the emetic center/ CRTZ which locally acting drugs act by irritating the GI tract.

True

which drug works by stimulating dopamine receptors in the CRTZ?

Apomophine

Which of the following is the drug of choice for controlling premature ventricular contractions and ventricular arrhymias?

Lidocaine

Due to the negative intopropic activity that antiarrhythmic drugs such as beta blockers cause, you would use which drug class to combat the beta 1 antagonsit effects?

Positive inotoropic drugs

True or False: Softening laxatives such as mineral oil should be given via a stomach tube because they do not stimulate the nomral gag reflex.

True

In cats, facial dermatitis is a side effect of...

Spironolactone

What is the main purpose of vassopressors?

Increase blood pressure when fluid therapy is insufficent

What are the antiarrhythmic medication classes that are used to treat ventricular arrhythmias. Please check all that apply.

- Potassium channel blockers

- Sodium channel blocker

- Calcium channel blockers

- Beta blockers

What is a side effect of using Beta- 2 adrenergic brochodilator?

Tachycardia

True or False: You should not inject air into the multi-dose Aminophylline vial due to carbon dioxide causing precipitate.

True

What is the plasma half- life of Dobutamine?

2 minutes

This class of respiratory drug is designed to break up mucous. This reduces the viscosity which makes it easier for the cilia to move it out of the respiratory tract.

Mucolytic

Secretory diarrhea

Caused by bacterial enterotoxins

Exudative diarrhea

inflammation or damage to intestinal wall is significant enough to allow leakage or electrolytes, plasma proteins from blood, or blood itself

Motility diarrhea

results when rapid movement of the intestinal contents prevents proper digestion of food or absorption of fluids before the contents are expelled as feces.

Osmotic diarrhea

occurs when there are osmotic particles such as digestion of food or absorption, fiber, or laxative drugs in the GI tract that hold water by osmatic attraction and preventing the fluid from being absorbed.

Maropitant is an NK-1 receptor anatagonists. It works well to control vomiting. __________is its trade name.

Cerenia

Dr. Skype tells you to send Mrs. Joel home with Zofran, which is s 5-HT3- sertonegic antagonists. It is helpful in controlling vomiting in chemotherapy patients. What is the Generic name?

Ondansetron

What drug class is used to dry out secretions and should not be used in respiratory disease patients?

Antihistamines

Which drug is an example of a centrally acting antitussive?

Hydrocodone

How is vomiting reflex influenced?

- Stimulation of neurons from the emetic center

- Stimulation of the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CRTZ)

- Inner ear/ balance

- Emotional stimulus or intracranial trauma or pressure

- Distention or irritation or the pharynx, stomach, duodenum, small intestine, peritoneum, kidney, gallbladder, or uterus

________ is a short acting Beta- blocker used for responsiveness to beta blockers. _________ is a beta blocker used to treat hypertension and feline cardiomyophathy.

Esmolol and Atenolol

Positive inotropic drugs

- Digoxin

- Dobutamine

- Pimobendan

- Dopamine

True or False: Furosemide can cause ototoxicity in cats if used with other ototoxic drugs such as gentamicin.

True

This vasodilator is used transdermally and should be applied while wearing gloves.

Nitroglycerine

Levothyroxine is used to treat...

Hypothyroidism

Mitotane and trilostane are used to treat...

Hyperadrenocorticism

I- 131 and methimazole (Tapazole) are both used in the treatment of...

Hyperthyroidism

DOCP (Percorten- V) and Fludrocortisone (Florinef) are drugs used in the treatment of...

Hypoadrenocorticism

Glipizide is used occasionally in cats for the treatment of...

Diabetes mellitus

Diazoxide and glucocorticoids are used in the treatment of...

Insulinomas

True or False: When collecting blood for therapeutic drug monitoring, you should use a serum separator tube. This will ensure that the serum packed cell remain seperate, and it will give you a more accurate result.

False

True or False: When dealing with Hypoadrenocortisim, we do not give prednisone until after an ACTH stimulation test is done because it will react with the cortisol on the assay. If a ACTH stimulation test needs to be done, you can use low dose dexamthasone becasue it will not react with the cortisol on the assay.

True

Which of the following drugs used to treat hypocalcemia does not require PTH for activation, and it is preferred form of vitamin D in hypoparathyroidism?

Dihydrotachysterol

When managing diabetes mellitus, which form of therapy, is always a better choice?

Insulin

Of the following, which one should not be given to a patient in insulin shock?

Table sugar

True or False: When preparing insulin for administration, you should roll the vial to mix the insulin. Shaking it will create air bubbles.

True

True or False: When giving insulin to a diabetic patient, it does not matter if you use a U40 or U100 syringe.

False

This drug can be used to prevent embryo implantation in dogs if given within 72 hours of mating.

Estradiol cypionate injection

This drug can be given to female dogs either prevent estrus (begun before heat) or shorten estrus (begun at first signs of heat).

Megesterol acetate (Ovaban)

This drug is an oral liquid given daily to suppress estrus in mares.

Altrenogest (Regu Mate)

This drug lyses the corpus luteum on the ovary, often forcing animal to begin estrous cycle again.

Prostaglandin F 2alpha

This drug is used to cause milk-let down; it also causes uterine contractions during birth and for the next 2 days

Oxytocin

Hypocontractile bladder

is classified as detrusor atony, which means that it is unable to generate sufficient

intravesicular pressure to initiate or complete voiding.

Hypercontractile bladder

is classified as urge

incontinence, which means that normal filling and storage of urine in the bladder is lost.

This is the most common cause of incontinence in the adult female dog

Uretheral incompetence

Phenylpropanolamine (Proin) is effective in ________ of female dogs with urethral incontinence...

85-90%

Oxybutynin

This drug is indicated for detrusor instability. It relaxes the detrusor muscle (which decreases the contractions during the storage of urine). It acts as an antispasmodic.

Phenoxybenzamine

This drug causes urethral smooth muscle relaxation; used in small animals primarily for its effect in reducing internal urethral sphincter tone in dogs and cats when urethral sphincter hypertonus is present.

Bethanechol

This drug is used to increase bladder contractility and tone of the detrusor muscle. It is used in the treatment of

"spinal cord bladders"

Diethylstilbestrol (DES)

This drug increases urethral closure pressure by increasing the density and responsiveness of a-adrenergic receptors in urethral smooth muscle.

_________ is the major mineralocorticoid hormone.

Aldosterone

Which intermediate acting glucocorticoid is used in cattle?

Isoflurpredone

________ is the most common side effect or NSAIDS.

GI ulceration

True or False: Suspension glucocorticoids is given via SQ route and should be kept at certain temperatures?

True