ICCM - Quiz 2

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169 Terms

1
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what is congestive heart failure?

a pump problem leading to fluid back-up in the legs and lungs

2
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how do you classify heart failure?

left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) and symptoms

3
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what are causes of heart failure?

chronic hypertension

diabetes

dyslipidemia

CAD

MI

valvular disease

drugs

4
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what are the signs/symptoms of heart failure?

dyspnea, edema, weight gain, etc

5
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what are the two types of heart failure?

reduced ejection fraction

preserved ejection fraction

6
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what is the first medication that you need to give for a CHF exacerbation and why?

nitroglycerin

it is a vasodilator for the veins (SVC and IVC) which reduces the workload on the heart and alleviates symptoms like pulmonary edema

7
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what is the other medication given for CHF exacerbation and why?

loop diuretic

relieves symptoms of fluid overload, such as shortness of breath and swelling, by forcing the kidneys to excrete excess salt and water

8
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what are you going to see on physical exam for a patient with a CHF exacerbation?

signs of fluid overload

such as jugular venous distension, peripheral edema, and rales or crackles in the lungs

9
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route and dosage options of nitroglycerin for CHF exacerbation

sublingual - 0.4 mg q 5 min as needed

IV - 5 mcg/hour

paste/lotion - 1/2 to 1 inch thick

10
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what are side effects of nitroglycerin?

headaches, dizziness, low blood pressure, flushing

11
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what is the mortality rate for a patient after being seen for a CHF exacerbation in the ED?

50% in 5 years

12
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what is the mortality rate for a patient after being seen for flash pulmonary edema in the ED?

50% in 2 years

13
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route and dosage of loop diuretics for CHF exacerbation

furosemide (Lasix) - 40 mg PO or 20 mg IV

torsemide (Demadex) - 20 mg PO or 10 mg IV

bumetanide (Bumex) - 1 mg PO or 0.5 mg IV

14
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how would you compare the loop diuretics?

furosemide -> torsemide -> bumetanide

more potent, harder on the kidneys, and more expensive

15
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if someone takes 80 mg PO of furosemide at home, how much torsemide IV would they need in the ED?

40 mg IV

16
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what is the general rule for dosing loop diuretics in the ED for CHF exacerbations and why?

double the dose that they are on at home

want to give enough to alleviate the patient's symptoms, but not too much to cause dehydration

17
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what labs and imaging should you order for a patient coming in with dyspnea?

labs - CMP, CBC, troponin, Mag, BNP

imaging - EKG and chest x-ray

18
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what is your differential diagnosis for bilateral, symmetric leg edema?

CHF exacerbation

end-stage kidney failure

liver failure

hypothyroidism

lymphedema

19
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what is severe hypothyroidism called and what sign is present?

myxedema coma - pretibial edema

20
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what is cardiac tamponade?

fluid in the pericardial space

21
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what are signs/symptoms of cardiac tamponade?

dyspnea, jugular vein distention, muffled heart sounds, hypotension

22
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what is Beck's Triad?

jugular vein distention

muffled heart sounds

hypotension

23
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what can cause cardiac tamponade?

acute onset - trauma, MI, aortic dissection, pericardial effusion

slow onset - autoimmune, malignancy, chronic inflammation, pericarditis, hypothyroidism, connective tissue disorders

24
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what population do you see cardiac tamponade the most?

patients with autoimmune diseases

25
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what do you see on EKG for cardiac tamponade?

electrical alternans - beat-to-beat alternation in the QRS

tachycardia

low QRS complex voltage

26
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what do you see on echo for cardiac tamponade?

swinging heart in the pericardial sac

27
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what do you see on x-ray for cardiac tamponade?

water bottle shaped heart

<p>water bottle shaped heart</p>
28
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what do you see on ultrasound for cardiac tamponade?

pericardial Effusion

RA systolic collapse

RV diastolic collapse

plethoric IVC

29
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what is the treatment for cardiac tamponade?

emergent pericardiocentesis

30
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what trial supports lisinopril/lorsartan, amlodipine, and hydrochlothiazide as treatment options for hypertension?

Systolic Blood Pressure Intervention Trial (SPRINT)

31
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what does the SPRINT study support?

which medications are best for hypertension treatment

32
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what are the three medications used for hypertension management?

lisinopril/losartan

amlodipine (preferred)

hydrochlothiazide

33
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more on lisinopril

ACE inhibitor

dose - 2.5 - 40 mg PO DQ

side effects - dry cough -> angioedema, hyperkalemia (AKI)

34
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what is angioedema?

swelling of the tongue and throat

a bradykinin mechanism

35
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when can angioedema occur when taking lisinopril or losartan?

any time

36
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what is the treatment for angioedema?

fresh frozen plasma

37
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more on losartan

ARB

dose - 25 - 100 mg PO QD

side effects - dry cough -> angioedema, hyperkalemia (AKI)

38
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more on amlodipine

non-DHP calcium channel blocker

dose - 2.5 - 10 mg PO QD

side effects - edema, dizziness

39
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more on hydrochlorothiazide

thiazide diuretic

dose - 12.5 - 25 mg PO QD

side effects - polyuruia, lightheadedness, electrolyte abnormalities (hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypercalcemia), hyperglycemia

40
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what is pulmonary embolism?

blood clot in the lungs

41
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how does a pulmonary embolism occur?

when a thrombus breaks free from elsewhere in the venous system and travels to the lungs

42
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what is the most common cause of a PE?

DVT

43
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where is the emboli found in a PE?

pulmonary artery

44
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what can occur if a PE is large enough?

stop the heart

45
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what is the location of a saddle PE?

bifurcation of the main pulmonary artery

46
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what are the signs/symptoms of a PE?

dyspnea on exertion, hypotension, hemoptysis

other - pleuritic chest pain, dizziness, hypoxia, leg pain or swelling

47
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what are the risk factors for a PE?

known or family history of DVT, recent surgery, cancer, coagulation disorders (factor V leiden), atrial fibrillation, immobility, pregnancy, oral contraceptives, smoking

48
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what are the diagnostic testing options for a PE?

d-dimer - preferred for low-risk patients to help rule out PE

CT angiography - preferred for moderate- to high-risk patients

pulmonary angiography - gold standard, but not done due to invasiveness

49
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what are some anticoagulant options?

heparin - IV

enoxaparin (lovenox), - SQ

apixaban, rivaroxaban, dabigatran, warfarin - PO

50
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what are the treatment options for PE?

anticoagulant - heparin (IV) or enoxaparin (SQ)

thrombectomy - large clot or severe signs/symptoms

51
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comparison of anticoagulant options for PE

heparin - preferred in surgery/thrombectomy due to being able to stop the drip during the procedure if needed whereas enoxaparin is in the system for 12 hours

enoxaparin - injection BID (easy admin for nurses)

52
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high-dose heparin IV bolus dosage for PE

80 units/kg

max 10,000 units

53
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high-dose heparin IV drip dosage for PE

18 units/kg

max 2,000 units/hour

54
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enoxaparin (lovenox) SQ dosage for PE

1 mg/kg SQ BID

max 120 mg

55
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does heparin remove the clot causing the PE?

no - it just prevents future clots

56
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what is goal INR

2-3

57
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how do you reverse heparin and enoxaparin?

protamine sulfate

58
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do all patients with a PE need a thrombectomy?

no - the body will break down smaller clots and thrombectomies are needed for larger clots or patients with severe signs/symptoms

59
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when do you do a thrombectomy?

large clots

evidence of right ventricle strain

hypotension

hypoxia

elevated BNP or troponin

60
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what is pneumonia?

infection of the lungs with thick, fluid build up

61
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what are the causes of pneumonia?

bacteria, viruses, fungi, aspiration

62
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what is the most common cause of pneumonia?

viral

most common - COVID, RSV, influenza

other - adenovirus, parainfluenza, human metapneumovirus

63
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how is bacterial pneumonia spread?

secretions

64
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how is viral pneumonia spread?

airborne/droplets

65
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what are the bacteria that cause typical pneumonia?

streptococcus pneumoniae

haemophilus influenzae

moraxella catarrhalis

klebsiella pneumoniae

66
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what are the bacteria that cause atypical pneumonia?

legionella pneumophila

mycoplasma pneumoniae

chlamydia psittaci

67
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what are risk factors for pneumonia?

elderly, COPD, asthma, cystic fibrosis, immunocompromised, smokers, history of viral respiratory infection, mechanical ventilation

68
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what are the outpatient treatment options for pneumonia?

amoxicillin/clavulonic acid (augmentin)

doxycycline

levofloxacin (levaquin)

azithromycin (Z-Pak)

69
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amoxicillin/clavulonic acid PO dosage for outpatient pneumonia

875 mg PO BID

7-10 days

70
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doxycycline PO dosage for outpatient pneumonia

100 mg PO BID

7-10 days

71
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levofloxacin PO dosage for outpatient pneumonia

750 mg PO BID

7-10 days

72
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azithromycin PO dosage for outpatient pneumonia

day 1 - 500 mg PO QD

days 2-5 - 250 mg PO QD

73
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what are the inpatient treatment options for pneumonia?

ceftriaxone (rocephin) and azithromycin (Z-Pak)

levofloxacin

74
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ceftriaxone IV and azithromycin PO dosage for inpatient pneumonia

ceftriaxone 1 g IV QD

azithromycin

day 1 - 500 mg PO QD

days 2-5 - 250 mg PO QD

75
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levofloxacin IV dosage for inpatient pneumonia

750 mg IV QD

76
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what can cause ascending paralysis?

Guillain-Barré syndrome

tick bites - rocky mountain wood tick or american dog tick

77
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what can cause descending paralysis?

botulism - clostridium botulinum

myasthenia gravis

78
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gram positive bacteria list

staphylococcus

streptococcus

enterococcus

clostridium

listeria

bacillus

corynebacterium

79
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gram negative bacteria list

escherichia

vibrio

salmonella

haemophilus

moraxella

pseudomonas

bartonella

pasturella

proteus

neisseria

klebsiella

enterobacter

helicobacter

yersinia

campylobacter

shigella

brucella

francisella

treponema

80
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anaerobe bacteria list

bacteroides

eikenella

fusobacterium

eubacterium

81
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atypical bacteria list

chlamydia

legionella

mycoplasma

82
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what streptococcus species lives in the mouth?

streptococcus mutans

83
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who gets listeria?

under 3 months and over 75 years

84
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how can someone get listeria?

moldy bread, unpasteurized dairy products, raw or undercooked meats, raw vegetables, processed foods

85
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who gets klebsiella?

alcoholics

will present with currant jelly sputum with bacterial pneumonia

86
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thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)

reductions in ADAMTS-13 activity

signs/symptoms - hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia,

acute renal failure, AND fever and neurological symptoms

treat - plasma exchange (TPE)

87
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hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)

cause - ingestion of undercooked ground beef contaminated with E. coli (shiga toxin-mediated)

signs/symptoms - hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia,

acute renal failure

88
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how do you get salmonella?

poultry, egg shells, raw or undercooked meat, dairy products, fruits, and vegetables

89
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what is the most common cause of duodenal ulcers?

H. pylori

90
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what are the options to treat C. diff?

vancomycin 125 mg PO QID x 10 days

metronidazole 500 mg PO BID

fidaxomicin

91
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what is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis?

streptococcus pneumoniae

92
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what is a considerations for treating bacterial meningitis?

dexamethasone needs to be started prior to antibiotic treatment

93
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what is a typical IV dose for piperacillin/tazobactam?

3375 mg IV Q6 hours

94
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what is typical IV dose for vancomycin

patient < 75 kg - 1 g IV BID

patient > 75 kg - 1.5 g IV BID

95
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prior to vaccination, what was haemophilus the most common cause of?

epiglotitis

96
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what causes rice water stool?

vibrio cholerae

97
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what are the PO options to treat MRSA?

trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (bactrim)

clindamycin

doxycycline

linezolid

98
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what is the history of fluoroquinolones?

discovered in 1962

the first quinolone, nalidixic acid, is discovered as a byproduct of chloroquine synthesis

99
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what is the mechanism of action of fluoroquinolones?

inhibit DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV, disrupting DNA replication

100
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what are the side effects of fluoroquinolones?

tendonitis (tendon rupture), GI upset (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea) with dairy