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primary MOA of targeted therapy in cancer tx
blocking specific molecular targets involved in tumor growth
VEGF-B binds to which receptor(s)
VEGFR-1
VEGF-A binds to which receptor(s)
VEGFR-1 and 2
VEGF-E binds to which receptor(s)
VEGFR-2
VEGF-C binds to which receptor(s)
VEGFR-2 and 3
VEGF-D binds to which receptor(s)
VEGFR-2 and 3
which veggies bind to VEGFR-1? select all that apply
a. VEGF-A
b. VEGF-B
c. VEGF-C
d. VEGF-D
e. VEGF-E
a and b
which veggies bind to VEGFR-2? select all that apply
a. VEGF-A
b. VEGF-B
c. VEGF-C
d. VEGF-D
e. VEGF-E
a, c, and e
which veggies bind to VEGFR-3? select all that apply
a. VEGF-A
b. VEGF-B
c. VEGF-C
d. VEGF-D
e. VEGF-E
c and d
what is the most pursued target for cancer therapy
tyrosine kinases
kinase structure:
what are the 5 main parts
N-terminal lobe
ATP binding pocket
hinge
activation loop
C-terminal lobe
kinases catalyze terminal phosphate groups of ATP to substrates that contain which amino acids (3)
Ser, Thr, or Tyr
kinases bind to the ___ of ATP and extend to the substrate binding site
hydrophilic channel
activation loops of kinases can ____ substrate binding sites
open or block
drugs that mimic ATP are able to inhibit _____ on kinases
ATP binding sites
drugs that mimic ATP have ____ interactions with amino acids in the hinge region of kinases
1-3 H bond
type 1 inhibitors are ATP _____ and they bind to active kinase conformation
competitive
type 1 inhibitors are ATP competitive, they mimic the ____ that is in the purine binding site hydrophobic pocket
heterocyclic ring system
type II inhibitors:
recognize ____ kinases DFG-Out conformation
inactive
which type of kinase inhibitor works on active kinases?
type I
which type of kinase inhibitor works on inactive kinases?
type II
type II inhibitors: the movement of the activation loop exposes _____ directly adjacent to the ATP binding site
additional hydrophobic binding site
type II inhibitors: the movement of the activation loop exposes additional hydrophobic binding site directly adjacent to ____
the ATP binding site
all kinase inhibitors have which structural components?
allosteric site
2 hydrophobic pockets
imatinib mesylate class
Bcr-ABL kinase inhibitor
nilotinib HCl class
Bcr-ABL kinase inhibitor
dasatinib class
Bcr-ABL kinase inhibitor
gefitinib class
1st generation EGFR TKI
erlotinib
1st generation EGFR TKI
dacomitinib class
2nd generation EGFR TKI
afatinib class
2nd generation EGFR TKI
osimertinib class
3rd generation EGFR TKI
rociletinib class
3rd generation EGFR TKI
brigatinib class
4th generation EGFR TKI
erlotinib is a ______ TKI
a. reversible
b. irreversible
b
erlotinib acts on which receptor?
epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR)
where does erlotinib bind on EGFR
ATP binding site
what reaction occurs for erlotinib binding to EGFR
H bond with Met769
erlotinib metabolism occurs in which organ
liver
which enzyme metabolizes erlotinib
CYP3A4
CYP3A4 activator examples
rifampicin
st johns wort
CYP3A4 activators (rifampicin and st johns wort) can _____ conc of erlotinib
lower
erlotinib metabolism:
what two rxns does CYP3A4 do
O-dealkylation and aromatic hydroxylation
erlotinib metabolism:
O-dealkylation metabolite is further metabolized by what enzymes
alcohol dehydrogenase and aldehyde dehydrogenase
erlotinib metabolism:
the aromatic hydroxylation metabolite is further metabolized to form…
hepatotoxic quinoneimine
gefitinib metabolism:
what rxn does CYP2D6 cause
dealkylation
gefitinib metabolism:
what reactions metabolize it
dealkylation, defluorination, hydroxylation
gefitinib metabolism:
the ____ product can be further metabolized to form a hepatotoxic quinoeimine
defluorination, hydroxylation
gefitinib metabolism:
the defluorination, hydroxylation product can be further metabolized to form _____
hepatotoxic quinoeimine
gefitinib contains which important structure
morpholine ring
most TKIs develop resistance w/n ___ yrs of use
2-5
most resistance to TKIs result from…
EGFR mutation
second generation TKIs bind ______
a. reversibly
b. irreversibly
b
second generation TKIs are ____ derivatives
quinazoline
second generation TKIs covalently bind with _____ at the ATP binding pocket
cysteine residues
Afatinib MOA
Dual EGFR & HER-2 kinase inhibitor.
Afatinib binds ____ to the ATP binding site via Cys
irreversibly
Afatinib binds irreversibly to the ATP binding site via___-
Cys
Afatinib is a ____ derivative
4-anilinoquinazoline
Afatinib is in the form of a ____
di-maleate salt
Afatinib has a H bond interaction between the ____ and the hinge region of the quinazoline
amide N of Met793
Afatinib has a H bond interaction between the amide N of Met793 and the ______
hinge region of the quinazoline
Osimertinib is given via…
a. IV
b. oral
c. subq
b
Osimertinib binds ____ to EGFR
a. reversibly
b. irreversibly
b
Osimertinib binds to EGFR proteins with a ______
T790M mutation
Osimertinib binds irreversibly to EGR with which mutations?
T790 M
L858R
exon 19 deletion
Brigatinib targets the ____ mutation of EGFR
T790M
Brigatinib avoids inhibition of ____
native EGFR
Brigatinib acts on ____ and mutated EGFR
anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK)
Brigatinib can overcome triple mutant EGFR if it is combined with…
an antiEGFR antibody
Alemtuzumab class
monoclonal antibody
Alemtuzumab binds to ___ on the surface of mature lymphocytes
CD52
Alemtuzumab binds to CD52 on ______
the surface of mature lymphocytes
How do EGFR inhibitors reduce tumor growth?
By blocking receptor activation → preventing downstream signaling through MAPK and PI3K/AKT pathways
What happens if EGFR signaling is constitutively active
Uncontrolled proliferation + resistance to apoptosis
antibodies can be directed against ___ to inhibit signaling for cell growth
extracellular domain
EGFR exists in ___ conformations
open and closed
Bevacizumab MOA
inhibits VEGF-A
VEGF-A signals stimulate ____ in many dx
angiogenesis
Trastuzumab MOA
interferes with the HER2/neu receptor
Pertuzumab binds to ____
HER2 extracellular domain
Vemurafenib MOA
BRAF inhibitor
Immunization with ___________ or both can stimulate patient’s own immune system to develop specific high-affinity antibodies
antigenic peptides containing B- or T-cell epitopes
Pembrolizumab class
PD-1-PDL1 inhibitor
Pembrolizumab MOA
replicates in tumors to make GMCSF
Thalidomide:
what is the active form
R
Thalidomide has both ____ and ______ activity
immunosuppressive and anti-angiogenic
Thalidomide MOA:
inhibits release of tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α) from monocytes, and modulates other cytokines
Thalidomide solubility
poor
Thalidomide metabolism
non-enzymatic hydrolysis in plasma by CYP450
Thalidomide end product
phthalic acid excreted as a glycine conjugate
Lenalidomide is a derivative of ____
thalidomide
which is more potent?
a. thalidomide
b. Lenalidomide
b
Lenalidomide MOA
inhibits tumor angiogenesis, tumor secreted cytokines and tumor proliferation through the induction of apoptosis
Lenalidomide absorption
rapidly after oral admin
Lenalidomide metabolism
unchanged
Pomalidomide is an analog of ______
thalidomide
Pomalidomide has both ____ and ______ effects
immunomodulatory & antineoplastic
which is the most potent?
a. lenalidomide
b. thalidomide
c. pomalidomide
c
Pomalidomide metabolism is by which enzymes
CYP1A2 and CYP3A4.