Forensic Psych Final Exam

Forensic psychology primarily deals with:

c. The interface between psychology and the law.

The Preamble to the United States Constitution provides due process for life, liberty, and _____________

b. Property.

Forensic psychology can focus on Eighth Amendment issues. This amendment deals with:

b. Cruel and unusual punishment.

What was the title of Hugo Munsterberg's book dealing with psychology and the law?

a. On the Witness Stand.

There are two major areas of forensic psychology. What are they?

d. Criminal and Civil.

What is a tort in the context of the law?

a. Wrongful behavior leading to harm.

What role do most people think when they mention forensic psychologists?

c. Evaluator.

Reliability in psychological sciences refers to:

b. The test results are consistent.

The Atkins case states:

d. That it is unconstitutional to execute someone with an intellectual disability.

An instrument designed to only assess competency to stand trial would be:

c. A forensic assessment instrument.

Which would not be considered archival collateral information when conducting a forensic evaluation?

d. Criminal arrest record.

What was the importance of the United States v. Greer?

c. Allowed for enhanced sentences for faking/malingering.

Grisso listed 10 common errors in forensic evaluations. Which was not on the list:

b. Using collateral information.

Risk, in forensic psychology, refers to:

d. Future likelihood of violence.

There is a high rate of mental disorders in prison populations (t/f)

a. True

Estelle v. Gamble (1976) is important because:

c. Prisoners have the constitutional right to medical treatment.

What is the definition of meta-analysis?

a. Studies are statistically combined to answer a question.

Frye v. United States (1923) would not allow lie detector test evidence in court. Why?

a. It was not generally accepted.

What case is now used as the evidentiary standard in most states?

b. Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals, Inc. (1993).

When testifying in court, it is important to do the following to be effective:

c. Demonstrate composure in adversarial context.

Battered Woman's Syndrome is typically used to explain what behavior:

b. A woman killing her husband.

Is it ethical to testify based on a contingency fee (paid for your opinion)?

b. No

We watched a movie clip of the Joker in class. What disorder did we discuss in reference to him?

c. Psychopathy.

What percentage of the general population likely has psychopathy?

a. 1%

Psychopathy has been associated with all of the below, except:

a. Violent behavior.

Cleckley's 1941 book that was critical to the field of psychopathy was titled:

d. Mask of Sanity.

The primary way to assess for psychopathy is with the:

c. Psychopathy Checklist-Revised.

Primary psychopathy has its etiology in:

d. Genetics.

Successful psychopathy is psychopathy in:

c. Politicians.

Psychopathy predicts violence in the following, except:

d. Domestic abusers.

Early research on psychopathy and treatment, found:

e. Psychopaths got worse with treatment.

If you assess psychopathy in youth, it is likely only valid for how long?

b. Six months.

when hearing a defendant had high psychopathy, juries in a capital case were:

b. More likely to give the death penalty.

Early risk assessment instruments did not do a good job at predicting risk. Circle one reason.

c. Were poorly organized.

The HCR-20 is an example of what type of risk assessment instrument?

c. Structured Professional Judgment.

Buck v. Davis is controversial because a psychologist said?

b. Ethnicity is associated with violence risk.

Which substance has the strongest association with violence risk?

a. Alcohol.

Risk Management focused on?

c. Minimizing violent behavior.strong

The Supreme Court in Buck v. Davis found?

c. Race cannot be used a risk factor for violence.

We watched and listened to a cartoon video from a Georgia court in class. What did the video show?

a. A judge losing control of his courtroom.

Paraphilia is defined as

a. A formal mental illness characterized by recurrent, intense and sexually arousing fantasies.

What is a penile plethysmograph?

a. Equipment measuring sexual arousal toward a stimulus.

Some states have sexually violent predator statues. What is that?

b. Civil commitment after prison for some sexual offenders.

Circle the factor that is the strongest predictor of sexual offending.

b. Deviant sexual arousal.

Being convicted but denying a sexual offense:

c. Has no relationship regarding future sexual offending.

The STATIC 99 is:

a. A professional judgment instrument for predicting sexual offending.

What is partisan allegiance?

a. Tendency for forensic evaluator to be biased toward side that pays him/her.

ffective programs for the treatment of sex offenders are based on:

d. Cognitive-behavioral therapy that focuses on both thoughts and behaviors.

Juvenile offenders make up approximately what percentage of the overall sex offender population?

b. 25%.

What is parens patriae?

d. Government can protect those who cannot care for themselves.

What is police power?

a. Government has to protect society.

In O'Connor v. Donaldson the Supreme Court opined?

b. Mentally ill and dangerousness are both necessary for civil commitment.

What did Rosenhan's study teach us:

a. Bias is often present when we think someone is mentally ill.

What did the video of the Virginia Tech killer teach us about him?

d. He expressed his plans to harm other people on the video and was dangerous.

What is an emergency commitment?

b. Pick up by the police not to exceed 72 hours.

What is the primary purpose of outpatient commitment?

a. Provide least restrictive environment for individual.

Washington v. Harper (1990) allowed for?

c. Involuntary medication of patients who are dangerous.

The case of Terri Schiavo illustrates?

b. The idea of advanced directives for medical treatment.

When making a legal decision, one is presumed:

a. Competent to make the decision.

What amendment deals with the right to confront ones accuser?

c. Sixth.

Competency to proceed to trial is the most common psycholegal issue raised in criminal trials. Approximately how many are ordered each year?

b. 60,000

Jackson v. Indiana (1972) deals with:

c. Legal representation in competency to stand trial hearings.

What is the most important part of a competency to stand trial evaluation?

a. Clinical interview.

What is a false positive finding when it comes to competency to stand trial evaluations?

a. Finding someone competent when they are actually not competent.

Which of the following has the highest association with findings of incompetency?

d. Psychotic disorder.

Which of the following has the highest association with not being able to be restored to competency?

e. Intellectual disability.

What did Sell v. United States (2003) allow?

c. Forced medication to make someone competent to stand trial.

Competency to waive Miranda rights involves the following:

d. Knowingly, intelligently, and voluntarily.

The insanity defense is considered a "perfect" defense, why?

b. Full absolution for criminal behavior, actually found not guilty.

What was Andrea Yate's primary diagnosis?

b. Postpartum Depression with psychosis.

Actus rea is translated as:

a. Criminal or guilty act.

Mens rea is translated as:

b. Criminal or guilty mind.

The M'Naghten standard is otherwise knowns as:

c. Right from Wrong test.

The Durham Test is otherwise known as:

d. Product Test.

How many states have eliminated the insanity defense?

d. Four.

The Foucha case said about an insanity acquittee and commitment:

c. Can remain committed if they remain mentally ill and dangerous.

The Jones case said about an insanity acquittee and commitment:

d. The length of commitment is independent from the crime they committed.

Box 9.3 dealt with research by whom and about what?

b. Vitacco and the insanity defense.

We watched a documentary about Ralph Tortorici. He was found?

a. Guilty.

Ralph Tortorici was diagnosed as:

b. Psychotic.

Ultimately, what was the outcome of Ralph Tortorici's case?

.b. He killed himself in prison.

Domestic Violence can include all the following, except?

b. Emotional harm and abuse.

How does stigma negatively influence domestic violence treatment?

a. Victims are embarrassed and may not report it.

Which of the below is not a risk factor for the commission domestic violence?

a. Higher SES.

Recently having a child:

c. Is associated with an increased risk for domestic violence.

Previous arrests for domestic violence:

b. Is indicated of a decreased risk for femicide.

What type of issues are not typically addressed with domestic abuse perpetrators:

c. Relationship with parents.

What is the most common type of domestic abuser?

c. Family-only.

What is a protective order?

c. Order prohibiting certain types of contact.

What part is not included in most stalking laws?

b. Intent of behavior does not matter.

Many adolescents who engage in school shootings in the last 10 years have a fascination with what?

b. Columbine shootings outside of Denver.

We watched a video titled Mind of a Rampage killer. What did we learn?

a. There are treatments for antisocial youth, especially if identified young.

a. School shooters have no warning signs and appear normal.

We watched a video from Iowa State University. What did we learn?

c. Hugging and showing affection with children is critically important.

The first juvenile courts were designed for what purpose?

b. Focus on rehabilitation of youth.

The 1960s in the cases of Kent and Gault did what primary purpose?

b. Provided due process rights, but not juries, for young offenders.

What is a desistor as discussed in class?

d. Adolescent who engages in criminal behavior in adolescence then stops when reaching adulthood.

Most individuals who begin their sexual offending in adolescence?

b. Have serious sexual behavioral problems throughout their life.

What is the significance of the Roper v. Simmons decision?

b. Made the death penalty unconstitutional for crimes committed under the age of 18.

What percentage of parents who divorce have contested child custody?

c. 10-30%.

What is sole custody?

c. One parent has placement and legal decision-making authority.