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uses for infectious disease serology
post streptococcal sequelae
spirochetal serology
immune status testing
detection of other active virus infections
possible post streptococcal sequelae
acute rheumatic fever
glomerulonephritis
what __% of children with strep develop acute rheumatic fever
2-3%
symptoms of acute rheumatic fever
fever
joint inflammation
heart inflammation
cause of acute rheumatic fever
strep throat
strep throat Ab
M protein immunogen
cross reactivity in tissue leads to damage
testing for acute rheumatic fever
Anti streptolysin O
Anti DNase B
acute rheumatic fever Anti streptolysan O (ASO) peaks
increases 2 weeks after initial infection. Peak at 3-6 weeks after initial infection
anti DNase B is tested when
ASO is negative but we are suspicious of acute rheumatic fever
how does post streptococcal glomerulonephritis happen
strep immune complexes deposit on the glomerulus
post streptococcal glomerulonephritis common age range
2-12 years old
what time of year is most common in post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
winter
is renal failure seen or not seen in post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
not seen
symptoms of post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
hematuria
proteinuria
edema
hypertension
pathogenesis for post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
Ab to strep is made, Ag remains in system. Immune complex (Ag+Ab) is deposited in the glomerulus and triggers an immune response.
testing for post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
Anti streptolysin O (ASO)
Anti DNase B
information on ASO testing timing for post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
increases 2 weeks after initial infection. Peak at 3-6 weeks after initial infection
when is Anti DNase B testing done for post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
done when we have suspicion of post streptococcal glomerulonephritis but ASO is negative
which spirochetes can be tested for with spirochetal serology
treponema pallidum
leptospirosis
borrelia burgdorferi
treponema pallidum causes this disease
syphilis
types of syphilis testing
treponemal
non treponemal
non treponemal tests
RPR
VDLR
what does RPR stand for
rapid plasma reagin
what does VDRL stand for
venereal disease research laboratory
non treponemal tests are tests which detect ________
reagin
in non treponemal tests we look for this kind of reaction
flocculation
wooly look when positive
non treponemal tests can be done on these specimens
plasma and serum
false positive on non treponemal tests can be caused by
lyme disease
malaria
HIV
lupus
pregnancy
spirochetal diseases
false negative on non treponemal tests can be caused by
primary/early syphilis
prozone effect
treponemal tests detect this
antibody specific to treponemal pallidum
when treponemal test is positive, it remains positive this long
for life!
examples of treponemal tests
IgG EIA
FTA Abs: fluorescent treponemal Ab
TPPA: treponema pallidum particle agglutination
in the primary stage of syphilis, this rises first
IgM
in the secondary and all following stages of syphilis, this rises and remains raised
IgG
two kinds of syphilis algorithms
traditional
reverse
traditional algorithm for syphilis
RPR (non treponemal)
EIA (treponemal)
reverse algorithm for syphilis
EIA
RPR (non treponemal)
EIA
leptospirosis is caused by this disease
leptospira intrigants
another name for leptospira intrigants disease
weils disease
method of acquisition for leptospirosis
zoonotic
cattle urinate in water
people drink the water
disease
what kind of testing is good for leptospirosis (Ig__)
IgM
common this kind of testing for lyme borreliosis
two tiered approach
EIA
western blot immunoassay
describe EIA
screening test
antigen on bottom well. Add patient Ab. sensitive but not specific
describe western blot immunoassay
confirmatory test
nitrocellulose and patient serum
Western Blot Immunoassay IgM
22 KDa, 39 KDa, and 41 KDa proteins.
2/3 proteins have to be positive to call it positive
western blot immunoassay igG
10 protein bands of interest.
5/10 must be positive to call it positive
current CDC recommendation for lyme borreliosis testing
EIA of brand 1
EIA of brand 2
what is the purpose of immune status testing
can tell us if someone is vaccinated
immune testing can be done on these conditions
measles
mumps
rubella (ToRCH panel)
Varicella Zoster
what is in a ToRCH panel
Toxoplasma gondii
Rubella
CMV
Herpes
when Toxoplasma gondii serology is positive it means we don't know _________
we don't know when the exposure to Toxoplasma gondii happened
what is the purpose of testing IgM for Toxoplasma gondii
it would indicate if infection happened within the last 18 months
what is the purpose of testing IgG avidity for Toxoplasma gondii
to see if an infection is current
Toxoplasma gondii avidity interpretation
low avidity:
high avidity:
low avidity: current infection
high avidity: old infection
rubella is also called
german measles
symptoms of rubella
maculopapular rash starts on the face and then goes to the trunk and to the limbs. Should go away in 3-5 days. Low grade fever, malaise, swollen lymphs, upper respiratory infection
expected result for rubella immune status testing
positive due to immunization
what is the potential concern with rubella and pregnancy?
CRS (congenital rubella syndrome)
concerns with CRS in pregnancy
may result in miscarriage, still birth, or CRS
CRS symptoms
deafness
ocular issues
motor disability
cognitive issues
is a pregnant mom has a positive immune status for rubella we test this
IgM avidity
rubella IgM avidity interpretation
high avidity:
low avidity:
high avidity: rubella exposure was a while ago
low avidity: active infection
what is CMV
cytomegalovirus
CMV is the most common cause of
congenital infections
desired result for CMV immune status test
positive
means the mom has the Ab to CMV
symptoms of babies with CMV
Upon birth we see small heads, seizures, rash, lung issues, spleen issues, liver issues.
Long term we see hearing loss, cognitive issues, vision loss, lack of coordination, and weakness.
when CMV immune status test is negative, it means this
mom could have CMV
when a pregnant mom has a negative CMV immune status test the provider should do this
educate the mom to be careful with hygiene
CMV method of acquisition
gross children
saliva and urine
organ transplant utility for testing CMV immune status
Organ transplant recipients are highly immune suppressed. The donor and recipient should be tested to ensure they are not cross reactive
results which may indicate a risk of rejection
Donor CMV IgG positive
Recipient CMV IgG negative
Varicella Zoster is this disease
chicken pox
how is varicella zoster spread
respiratory
coughs and sneezes
what is the purpose for varicella zoster immune status testing
to see if someone has been vaccinated for chicken pox
infectious disease serology can be used for these other active viral infections
Hepatitis
EBV
HIV
Hepatitis A mode of acquisition
fecal oral
hepatitis A is this family of virus
picornaviridae
clinical criteria for hepatitis A
fever, headache, malaise, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, dark urine, jaundice, ALT increased
lab criteria for hepatitis A
bilirubin (>3 mg/dL).
ALT >200.
IgM positive serology.
Reverse transcriptase PCR to diagnose
for every reported case of hep A, this amount of cases goes unreported
1 case
hepatitis C mode of acquisition
needle stick
sex
clinical criteria for Hep C
fever, headache, malaise, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, dark urine, jaundice, ALT increased
lab tests for Hep C
molecular testing
Anti Hep C Ab testing
what __% of Hep C cases become chronic
85%
what __% of Hep C cases are acute
15%
for every one reported case of Hep C, this number of cases go unreported
14 cases
predisposition for Hep C
Male, over 50 years, alcohol, fatty liver disease, Hep B or HIV, immunosuppressants
most common genotype of Hep C
genotype 1
therapy for Hep C is most likely for these genotypes
genotypes 2-3
treatment for Hep C
pegylated interferon and ribavirin
who should be tested for Hep C
Baby boomers
Adults >18 should be screened once in their life
All women should be tested during pregnancy
People with risk factors
anyone who wants it
what are the risk factors for Hep C
HIV, IV drug abuse, needle stick exposure, medical conditions, transplant recipients, dialysis, transfusion recipients, babies born to moms with HepC
Hepatitis B mode of acquisition
needle stick
sex
mom to baby
is acute or chronic more common for Hep B
acute is more common
clinical criteria for Hep B
fever, headache, malaise, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, dark urine, jaundice, ALT increased
laboratory criteria for Hep B
Jaundice (bilirubin >3 mg)
Hep B surface Ag test
Hep B core IgM
acute hepatitis panel
Hep B surface antigen
Hep B core IgM
Hep A IgM
anti Hep C total
hepatitis B panel
Hep B surface antigen
Hep B core IgM
Hep B core and total (IgM and IgG)
Hep B surface antibody
what does the surface antibody alone indicate about Hep B
indicates someone has had the vaccine
in chronic Hep B, _____________ remains elevated
surface antigen remains elevated
who has worse outcomes for chronic Hep B
children