Pharma - Review Quizzes

Which one of the following correctly describes a nutraceutical?

Not classified as a drug, cannot make therapeutic claims, not regulated by the FDA

Vaccines are regulated by…

USDA

Refills for a non-controlled prescription drug may be authorized by the veterinarian for a maximum of __________from date on the original prescription

12 months

There is a ______________refill limit for a controlled prescription drugs.

6 months

T/F: When an OTC product is used extra-label in animals, it must be treated as a prescription drug in accordance with the provisions of AMDUCA

True

A compounded product is... 

Based on individual need

Drugs in this category have a current accepted medical use for treatment in the United States but which have a high potential for abuse. This abuse may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence.

Schedule II

Drugs with the lowest potential for abuse of those scheduled as controlled drugs are in ….

Schedule V

The DEA requires that Controlled Substance Records be kept for…

2 years

Outdated, damaged, or contaminated CS must be disposed of, and we must follow federal regulations and filing…

DEA form 41

This is a separate complementary health-care profession concerned with collection, preparation, standardization, and dispensing of drugs.

Pharmacy

This is the amount of drug given at one time.

Dose

This is the lowest concentration that produces the desired effect.

Minimum Effective Concentration

This is the lethal dose in 50% of animals (based on a toxicity study)

LD50

This is the measure of the relative desirability of a drug for attaining a particular medical end versus its risk of toxicity.

Therapeutic Index

Please choose the nonproprietary name…

Mitotane

This is a substance naturally produced in the body and it induces a physiologic action

Endogenous agnoist

Drugs are primarily metabolized by the... 

Liver

Drugs are eliminated by... 

Liver and Kidneys

This is an adverse event that can be anticipated based on the known mechanism of the drug, and it is usually dose dependent.

Type A Adverse Reaction

When handling chemotherapy drugs, it is important to know that they can be absorbed through…

Inhalation, Ingestion, & Skin

This chemo drug cannot be used in cats because it causes a fatal pulmonary edema and pleural effusion.

Cisplatin

This chemo drug can cause cardiotoxicity.

Doxorubicin

T/F: Carboplatin will not cause vomiting in patients.

True

Should you give Chlorambucil with food?

No

This is the drug of choice for emergency treatment of status epilepticus.

Diazepam

These drugs are going to increase the amount of dopamine found in selected cells of the CNS and enhance the effect of dopamine

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)

This is the drug of choice for long-term seizure control.

Phenobarbital

These drugs are used to control learned fear responses to stimuli such as thunder and fireworks.

Antipsychotics

These drugs are used to treat generalized anxiety and separation anxiety behaviors in dogs.

Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)

 These drugs are used to treat cognitive dysfunction (old dog senility).

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)

Levothyroxine is used to treat...

Hypothyroidism

Mitotane and trilostane are used to treat... 

Hyperadrenocorticism

T/F: In patients with hyperparathyroidism, Hypercalcemia must be managed post-op.

False

T/F: Owners can rub table sugar on the gums of their pets if they are in insulin shock. This will buy them time to get their pet to the clinic. 

False

Why can’t you rub table sugar on the gums on a pet in insulin shock?

Table sugar is a disaccharide that has to be digested before absorption occurs in intestine

What is the treatment of choice for hyperthyroidism? 

Radioactive iodine 131 (I-131)

T/F: When giving insulin to a diabetic patient, it does not matter if you use a U40 or U100 syringe.

False

Phenylpropanoloamine is effective in…

85-90% of dogs

____________________ is a cause of urinary retention.

Urethral Neoplasia, Urethral Plugs, Bladder Neoplasia, Uroliths

T/F: Bethanechol is used to increase bladder contractility.

True

This drug causes smooth muscle relaxation. It is used mainly for its effect in reducing internal urethral sphincter tone in dogs and cats when urethral sphincter hypertonus us present. 

Phenoxbenzamine

What are the common signs of inflammation?

Heat, Swelling, Pain, & Redness

Which hormone is labeled to be the major mineralocorticoid hormone?

Aldosterone

T/F: Prednisone does not effectively convert to Prednisolone in cats.

True

Which intermediate acting glucocorticoid drug is used in cattle?

Isoflurpredone

Which glucocorticoid drug is used in the treatment of hypoadrenocorticism? 

Desoxycortcosterone pivalate

NSAIDs are mostly used for analgesia and reduction of fever while blocking the activity of COX enzymes inhibiting the production of prostaglandins. In the class of NSAIDs, there is a Non-cox selective class and COX-2 selective class. Please select all NSAIDs considered to be Non-cox selective. 

Flunixin, Aspirin, Ketoprofen, Phenylbutazone, Piroxicam

T/F: Piroxicam is one of few NSAIDs that can be utilized in cats. It's good for moderate to severe musculoskeletal pain and used in cancer patients. Major side effects include diarrhea/vomiting, tar-like stool, and increase thirst/urination.

True

IM injections of Phenylbutazone can cause what in cattle?

Tissue necrosis & Severe inflammation (perivascular injection)

NSAIDs are mostly used for analgesia and reduction of fever while blocking the activity of COX enzymes inhibiting the production of prostaglandins. In the class of NSAIDs, there is a Non-cox selective class and COX-2 selective class. This COX-2 selective drug is chronically used in dogs and should be used with cautions in dogs with existing liver injury due to the possibility of the patient developing idiosyncratic hepatotoxicity. 

Carprofen

Deracoxib is used to treat post-operative pain and reduce fever. It's approved treatment is up to ______?

7 days

T/F: One of Meloxicam side effects include jaundice (yellow membranes) due to the hepatic side effects ranging from asymptomatic elevation in serum levels. This side effect is seen about 7-8 hours after ingestion of Meloxicam.

True

T/F: A blood clot travel to different locations (organs) whereas an embolism will become stuck in blood vessels causing obstruction.

False

What are the 6 goals for cardiovascular disease?

Minimize cardiac damage (stretch of myocardial fibers), removal/prevention of edema, improve cardiac output, regulate heartrate/rhythm, improve oxygenation, decrease risk of thrombolism

During depolarization, ____________ moves into the cell. 

Sodium

Depolarization and the contraction of the ventricles is represented by which part of the ECG? 

QRS Complex

What are the four antiarrhythmic medication classes used to treat ventricular arrhythmias?

Sodium Channel Blockers, Beta Blocker, Potassium Channel Blockers. Calcium Channel Blockers

This sodium channel blocker is used as a maintenance drug for patience who respond to short acting sodium channel blockers. 

Mexiletine

Beta blocker antiarrhythmic drugs slow the heart down and decrease cardiac output due to their selective beta 1 antagonist properties. Which drug class will you use to combat the beta 1 antagonist properties when using beta blockers? 

Positive Inotropic Drugs

This vasodilator is used transdermally and should be applied while wearing gloves.

Nitroglycerine

This diuretics can cause ototoxicity in cats if used with other ototoxic drugs such as gentamicin. 

Furosemide

This drug cause facial dermatitis in some cats but when the drug is discontinued, the dermatitis resolves. 

Spironolactone

_____________ refers to what the body des to the drug or how the drug moves within the body. 

Pharmacokinetics

Inner ear balance (motion sickness) is caused by the release of what receptors?

Acetylcholine & Histamines

Apomorphine works by acting on which receptor? 

Dopamine

T/F: Locally acting drugs work by causing irritation to the gastric mucosa leading to the parasympathetic stimulation of the emetic center. 

True

This prokinetic drug can be used for antiemetics however due to the increase of patients who do not respond to this drug, veterinary medicine has switched to using 5-HT3 receptor antagonists such as Maropitant more often. What drug is it?

Metoclopramide

This form of diarrhea is caused by rapid movement of intestinal contents that prevent proper digestion of food or absorption of fluids before the contents are expelled in the feces. 

Motility diarrhea

Which species will you limit usage of Pepto-Bismol in or not use at all due to their limited ability to metabolize and excrete salicylates?

Feline

What are the three principles of respiratory therapeutics? 

Control secretions and reflexes, maintain normal airflow to the alveoli

Centrally acting antitussive drugs such as ____________ and _______________ are commonly used in veterinary medicine. 

Hydrocodone & Codeine

Opioids such as Hydrocodone can act as an antitussive. What is a common side effect of this drug? 

Constipation

What is an example of an beta - 2 adrenergic bronchodilator? 

Albuterol

This particular Methylxanthine drug is incompatible with IV fluids. 

Aminophylline

T/F: You should not inject air into the multidose Aminophylline vial due to carbon dioxide causing the drug to precipitate.

True

What are the two routes a patient can safely receive Doxapram?

IV and Sublingual for puppies & kittens

SAMe is an ingredient that is found in...

Liver function products

Cranberry extract is used for

Urinary tract

T/F: Probiotics are harmless bacteria that help protect the body from harmful bacteria, and they help reestablish normal intestinal microflora.

True

____________________, which are classified as Benzimidazoles, are associated with liver toxicities?

Oxibendazole and Mebendazole

T/F: Organophosphates are neurotoxic to parasites; but they do not cause neurologic side effects in the host.

False

________________ is/are effective against ascarids, strongyles, whipworms, and hookworms

Imidazothiazoles (levamisole)

___________________ is a combination product used topically in cats for treatment and control of hookworm, roundworm, and tape worm

Profender

Which of the following Anticestodals is effective on all cestode species?

Praziquantel

Which of the following Anticestodals is effective on Taenia and Dipylidium, but not Echinococcus.

Epsiprantel

Which of the following antiprotozoal drugs is used in the treatment of Babesia?

Imidocarb

____________ is a 6-month injectable heartworm preventative and ___________________ is a once monthly topical heartworm preventative.

Moxidectin & Selamectin

____________________used to help perform comprehensive eye exams or to remove foreign material from the eye.

Topical anesthetics (proparacaine)

___________________ dilates the pupil.

Mydriatics (atropine)

______________________ constricts the pupil.

Miotics (pilocarpine)

Which one of the following is considered to be a soothing agent?

Oatmeal

T/F: Seborrhea is characterized by abnormal flaking or scaling of the epidermis. If this condition is accompanied by increased oil production, it is called seborrhea sicca.

False

These are agents that constrict the tissues.

Astringents

These are agents that kill or inhibit the growth of microbes on living tissue.

Antiseptics

This anti-fungal medication is only effective on dermatophytes. Comes in microsized and ultra-microsized forms.

Griseofulvin

A major side effect of this drug is nephrotoxicity. It is used for systemic candida infections and most systemic mycoses. It is given IV only.

Amphotericin B

Of the following Azoles, which one’s absorption is decreased by a fatty diet?

Voriconazole

 This drug is classified as an iodide, and it is use in the treatment of Sporotrichosis and woody tongue in cattle. It is labeled for IV use.

Sodium iodide

T/F: The goal of antimicrobial therapy is to kill or disable pathogens without killing the host.

True