CPAR MS Theory Recalls May 2025 LECPA

Consider the descriptors that follow. Determine whether the descriptors are most closely associated with financial accounting or managerial accounting.

1. The users of information are the managers within the organization.

2. Reports focus on the enterprise in its entirety. Based almost exclusively on historical transaction data.

3. Not required and unregulated, since it is intended only for management.

4. Reports often focus on subunits within the organization, such as departments, divisions, geographical regions, or product lines. Based on a combination of historical data, estimates, and projections of future events.

5. The primary source of data is almost exclusively the organization's basic accounting system, which accumulates financial information.

6. Required and must conform to generally accepted accounting principles.

7. Users of information are interested parties outside the organization.

1. mgt

2. financial

3. mgt

4. mgt

5. financial

6. financial

7. financial

Consider the descriptors that follow. Determine whether the descriptors are most closely associated with financial accounting or managerial accounting.

8. Sources of data are the organization's basic accounting system, plus various other sources, such as rates of defective products manufactured, physical quantities of materials and labor used in production, occupancy rates in hotels and hospitals, and average take-off delays in airlines.

9. Focuses on planning, decision making, directing, and control.

10. May become involved with measures of customer satisfaction, and the amount of actual cost incurred vs. budgeted targets.

8. mgt

9. mgt

10. mgt

[Roles Of Controller and Treasurer]

Classify the following as pertaining either to a controller or a treasurer:

1. Supervises the accounting department

2. Manages investments.

3. Manages relationships with creditors, investors, and government agencies that provide financial support.

4. Assists line managers throughout the organization in interpreting and using managerial accounting information.

5. Responsible for credit policy and collection of accounts.

6. Prepares all reports for external parties (financial accounting).

7. Manages the organization's insurance coverage.

8. Prepares all reports and information for internal users (managerial accounting).

9. Maintains custody of cash and other assets.

10. Prepares reports required for taxation and governmental reporting: advises management on tax-related issues.

1. controller - chief mgt and financial accountant

2. treasurer

3. treasurer - raise capital (involves money)

4. controller

5. treasurer

6. controller

7. treasurer

8. controller (mgt accounting)

9. controller (may "other assets" kasi)

10. controller

[CURRENT FOCUS OF MANAGEMENT ACCOUNTING]

Match the following items:

1. Continuous reduction in cost

2. Linked set of value-creating activities

3. Using cost data to identify superior strategies

4. Selling over the Internet

5. A product's total tangible and intangible benefits

6. Suppliers and customers

7. Flow of materials from upstream to downstream

8. Internal value chain

9. Zero defects

10. Realization of less sacrifice

11. Activity-based costing and process value analysis

a. Strategic cost management

b. Total quality management

c. Internal linkages

d. Activity-based management

e. Customer value

f. E-business

g. Industrial value chain

h. External linkages

i. Total product

j. Supply chain management

k. Efficiency

1. K

2. G

3. A

4. F

5. I

6. H

7. J

8. C

9. B

10. E

11. D

[ANALYSIS]

1. The lower the break-even point = the ____

2. The lower the desired amount of profit = the ____

3. The higher the margin of safety = the ____

4. In degree of operating leverage

[ANALYSIS]

1. The lower the break-even point = the better

↓ BEP = Favorable ↑ BEP = Unfavorable

2. The lower the desired amount of profit = the better

3. The higher the margin of safety = the better

↑ FC; ↑ BEP; ↓MOS

↓ FC; ↓ BEP; ↑ MOS

4. In degree of operating leverage

↑ FC; ↑ DOL; ↑ BEP

↓ FC; ↓ DOL; ↓ BEP

REQUIRED:

Classify the given costs as prevention, appraisal, internal failure, or external failure.

1. Downtime due to defects in quality

2. Evaluation of suppliers

3. Depreciation of test equipment

4. Systems development

5. Reliability testing

6. Product liability

7. Quality engineering/design

8. Inspection of manufactured goods on assembly line

9. Rework labor and overhead

10. Customer complaints

11. Warranty repairs

12. Supervision of testing and inspection

13. Rework of defective goods before transfer

to finished goods

14. Net cost of scrap

15. Preventive maintenance for equipment

16. Warranty replacements

17. Units repaired at customers' site

18. Quality improvement projects

19. Product testing

20. Employee training

1. internal failure

2. prevention

3. appraisal (conducting inspection/testing)

4. prevention

5. appraisal

6. nakarating product sa customer so external failure

7. prevention (design)

8. appraisal

9. internal failure (rework)

10. external failure

11. defective ang nai-deliver (external)

12. appraisal

13. internal

14. scrap - kasi defective (nadiscover within company so internal)

15. prevention

16. external

17. external

18. prevention

19. appraisal

20. prevention

Determine the proper classification (financial, customer, learning and growth, or internal business process) for each of the factors listed.

a. Employee turnover

b. Cash flow from operations

c. Number of customer complaints

d. Unfavorable standard cost variances

e. Hours of in-house training per employee

f. Defect-free units as a percentage of completed units

g. Time from call by customer to repair of product

h. Number of new customers

i. Gross profit

j. Setup time

k. Product returns as a percentage of sales

l. On-time deliveries as a percentage of all deliveries

m. Market share

n. Customer satisfaction as measured by survey results

o. Suggestions per employee

p. Time to introduce new products to market

q. Percentage of customers retained from last period

a. L&G

b. financial

c. customer

d. variances - meaning hindi ayos ang sistema/performance (IBP)

e. employee so L&G

f. dapat maayos ang sistema para maiwasan ang defects so IBP

g. dapat maayos ang sistema para if merong ipapa-repair, mare-repair agad so IBP

h. customer

i. financial

j. IBP

k. customer

l. IBP

m. pag malaki ito, happy ang customers so customer

n. customer

o. L&G

p. IBP

q. customer

If both the supply and the demand for a good increase, the market price will

a. Rise only in the case of an inelastic supply function.

b. Fall only in the case of an inelastic supply function.

c. Not be predictable with only these facts.

d. Rise only in the case of an inelastic demand function.

A supply curve illustrates the relationship between

a. Price and quantity supplied

b. Price and consumer tastes

c. Price and quantity demanded

d. Supply and demand

As a business owner you have determined that the demand for your product is inelastic. Based upon this assessment you understand that

a. Increasing the price of your product will increase total revenue

b. Decreasing the price of your product will increase total revenue

c. Increasing the price of your product will have no effect on total revenue

d. Increasing the price of your product will increase competition

Which one of the following has an inverse relationship with the demand for money?

a. Aggregate income

b. Price levels

c. Interest rates

d. Flow of funds

An improvement in technology that in turn leads to improved worker productivity would most likely result in

a. A shift to the right in the supply curve and a lowering of the price of the output.

b. A shift to the left in the supply curve and a lowering of the price of the output.

c. An increase in the price of the output if demand is unchanged.

d. Wage increases.

Which of the following market features is likely to cause a surplus of a particular product?

a. A monopoly

b. A price floor

c. A price ceiling

d. A perfect market

A decrease in the price of a complementary good will

a. shift the demand curve of the joint commodity to the left

b. increase the price paid for a substitute good

c. shift the supply curve of the joint commodity to the right

d. shift the demand curve of the joint commodity to the right

Demand for a product tends to be price inelastic if

a. the product is considered a luxury item

b. few good complements for the product are available

c. the population in the market area is large

d. people spend a large share of their income on the product

Which of the following has the highest price elasticity coefficient?

a. Milk

b. Macaroni and cheese

c. Bread

d. Ski boats

The local video store's business increased by 12% after the movie theater raised its prices from P65 to P70. Thus, relative to movie theater admissions, videos are

a. substitute goods

b. superior goods

c. complementary goods

d. public goods

An individual receives an income of P3,000 per month, and spends P2,500. An increase in income of P500 per month occurs, and the individual spends P2,800. The individual's marginal propensity to save is

a. 0.2

b. 0.4

c. 0.6

d. 0.8

In any competitive market, an equal increase in both demand and supply can be expected to always

a. increase both price and market-clearing quantity

b. decrease both price and market-clearing quantity

c. increase market-clearing quantity

d. increase price

Given the following data, what is the marginal propensity to consume?

Level of:

Disposable Income

P40,000

48,000

Consumption

P38,000

44,000

a. 1.33

b. 1.16

c. 0.95

d. 0.75

Which of the following will cause a shift in the supply curve of a product?

a. Changes in the price of the product.

b. Changes in production taxes.

c. Changes in consumer taxes.

d. Changes in the number of buyers in the market.

When the government imposes health and safety regulations on certain products, one of the most likely results is

a. greater consumption of the product

b. lower prices for the product

c. greater tax revenues for the government

d. higher prices for the product

In which of the following situations would there be inelastic demand?

a. A 5% price increase results in 3% decrease in the quantity demanded.

b. A 4% price increase results in a 6% decrease in the quantity demanded.

c. A 4% price increase results in a 4% decrease in the quantity demanded.

d. A 3% price decrease results in 5% increase in the quantity demanded.

In a competitive market for labor in which demand is stable, if workers try to increase their wage

a. employment must fall

b. government must set a maximum wage below the equilibrium wage

c. firms in the industry must become smaller

d. product supply must decrease

A polluting manufacturing firm tends, from the societal viewpoint, to

a. price its products too low

b. produce too little output

c. report too little profitability

d. employ too little equity financing

If the government regulates a product or service in a competitive market by setting a maximum price below the equilibrium price, what is the long-run effect?

a. A surplus

b. A decrease in demand

c. A shortage

d. No effect on the market

A valid reason for the government to intervene in the wholesale electrical power market would include which one of the following?

a. A price increase that is more than expected.

b. Electricity is an essential resource and the wholesale market is not competitive.

c. The electricity distribution companies are losing money.

d. Foreign power generators have contracts with the local government at very high prices.

If the income elasticity of demand coefficient for a particular product is 3.00, the good is likely

a. A luxury good

b. An inferior good

c. A complementary good

d. A necessity

Which one of the following would cause the demand curve for a commodity to shift to the left?

a. A rise in the price of a substitute product.

b. A rise in average household income.

c. A rise in the price of a complementary commodity.

d. A rise in the population.

Price ceilings

a. are illustrated by government price support programs in agriculture

b. create prices greater than equilibrium prices

c. create prices below equilibrium prices

d. result in persistent surpluses

X and Y are substitute products. If the price of product Y increases, the immediate impact on product X is

a. price will increase

b. quantity demanded will increase

c. quantity supplied will increase

d. price, quantity demanded, and supply will increase

Wilson Corporation has a major competitor that produces a product that is a close substitute for Wilson's good. If the coefficient of cross-elasticity of demand for Wilson's product with respect to the competitor's product is 2.00 and the competitor decreases its price by 5%, what is the expected effect on demand for Wilson's product?

a. A 5% increase in demand

b. A 10% increase in demand

c. A 5% decrease in demand

d. A 10% decrease in demand

If a group of consumers decide to boycott a particular product, the expected result would be

a. An increase in the product price to make up lost revenue

b. A decrease in the demand for the product

c. An increase in product supply because of increased availability

d. That demand for the product would become completely inelastic

Which of the following is not likely to affect the supply of a particular good?

a. Changes in government subsidies.

b. Changes in technology

c. Changes in consumer income

d. Changes in production costs

If a product's demand is elastic and there is a decrease in price, the effect will be

a. a decrease in total revenue

b. No change in total revenue

c. A decrease in total revenue and the demand curve shifts to the left

d. An increase in total revenue

All of the following are complementary goods except

a. margarine and butter

b. Cameras and rolls of film

c. VCRs and video cassettes

d. Razors and razor blades

The law of diminishing marginal utility states that

a. Marginal utility will decline as a consumer acquires additional units of a specific product

b. Total utility decline as a consumer acquires additional units of a specific product

c. Declining utilities causes the demand curve to slope upward

d. Consumers' wants will diminish with the passage of time

In the pharmaceutical industry where a diabetic must have insulin no matter the cost and where there is no other substitute, the diabetic's demand curve is best described as

a. Perfectly elastic

b. Elastic

c. Perfectly inelastic

d. Inelastic

Because of the existence of economies of scale, business firms may find that

a. Each additional unit of labor is less efficient than the previous unit

b. As more labor is added to a factory, increases in output will diminish in the short run

c. Increasing the size of a factory will result in lower average costs

d. Increasing the size of a factory will result in lower total costs

In the long run, a firm may experience increasing returns due to

a. Law of diminishing returns

b. Opportunity costs

c. Comparative advantage

d. Economies of scale

The measurement of the benefit lost by using resources for a given purpose is

a. Economic efficiency

b. Opportunity costs

c. Comparative advantage

d. Absolute advantage

Marginal revenue is

a. Equal to price in monopolistic competition

b. The change in total revenue associated with increasing prices

c. Greater than price in pure competition

d. The change in total revenue associated with producing and selling one more unit

In microeconomics, the distinguishing characteristic of the long run on the supply side is that

a. Only supply factors determine price and output

b. Only demand factors determine price and output

c. Firms are not allowed to enter or exit the industry

d. All inputs are variable

What is the main factor that differentiates the short-run cost function from the long-run cost function?

a. Nothing, the two functions are identical

b. The level of technology

c. Changes in government subsidies

d. The nature of the costs

If consumer confidence falls, the impact upon the economy is

a. A downturn

b. No change

c. An upturn

d. Consumer confidence does not have an impact upon the economy

During the recessionary phase of a business cycle

a. The purchasing power of money is likely to decline rapidly

b. The natural rate of unemployment will increase dramatically

c. Potential national income will exceed actual national income

d. Actual national income will exceed potential national income

For a given level of tax collections, prices, and interest rates, a decrease in governmental purchases will result in a(n)

a. Increase in aggregate demand

b. Increase in aggregate supply

c. Decrease in aggregate demand

d. Decrease in aggregate supply

In national income terms, aggregate demand is the

a. Demand for money by the community in a period of full employment

b. Total expenditure on capital goods by entrepreneurs during a period of full employment

c. Demand that is needed if a country's economy is to operate at optimum level and the level of investment is to be raised

d. Total expenditures on consumer goods and investment, including government and foreign expenditures, during a given period

Which one of the following would not be included in the calculation of the gross domestic product?

a. Purchase of a new home

b. An automotive worker's wages

c. A doctor's fee

d. Purchase of common stock

An upturn in economic activity is indicated by all of the following, except

a. Increased housing starts

b. Reduction in the quantity of unemployment claims

c. Increase in personal travel

d. Reduction in the amount of luxury purchases

Which of the following may provide a leading indicator of a future increase in gross domestic product?

a. A reduction in the money supply

b. A decrease in the issuance of building permits

c. An increase in the timeliness of delivery by vendors

d. An increase in the average hours worked per week of production workers

Which one of the following statements about leading economic indicators is not true?

a. For forecasting purposes, several variables are monitored and weighted-average is referred to as the index of leading indicators

b. The index of leading indicators has historically been very accurate

c. The use of the index of leading indicators involves monitoring the data on a monthly basis

d. As the nature of the economy has changed, it has been necessary to revise the components of the index of leading indicators

Disposable income is calculated as

a. Gross domestic product minus the capital cost allowance

b. Net domestic product minus indirect business taxes plus net income earned abroad

c. Personal income minus transfer payments

d. Personal income minus personal taxes

The primary reason for allowing legal immigration into industrial nations is the immigrants' potential for

a. Reducing a trade deficit

b. Fulfilling a trade agreement

c. Contributing to economic growth

d. Fulfilling a political agreement

Some economic indicators lead the economy into a recovery or recession, and some lag it. An example of a lagging indicator is

a. Chronic unemployment

b. Housing starts

c. Orders for consumer and producer goods

d. Consumer expectations

Government borrowing to finance large deficits increases the demand for lendable funds and

a. Increases the supply of lendable funds

b. Has no impact on interests

c. Exerts downward pressure on interest rates

d. Puts upward pressure on interest rates

A period of rising inflation

a. Increases the price level, which benefits those who are entitled to receive specific amounts of money

b. Enhances the positive relationship between the price level and the purchasing power of money

c. Will not be affected by contracts that include the indexing of payments

d. Increases the price level, which is negatively related to the purchasing power of money

The most effective fiscal polity program to help reduce demand pull inflation would be to

a. Decrease the rate of growth of the money supply

b. Increase both taxes and government spending

c. Decrease taxes and increase government spending

d. Increase taxes and decrease government spending

The money supply in a nation's economy will decrease following

a. Open-market purchases by the nation's central bank

b. A decrease in the discount rate

c. An increase in the reserve ratio

d. A decrease in the margin requirement

C

According to fiscal policy principles, a tax increase will

a. Increase spending and increase aggregate demand

b. Increase spending and reduce aggregate demand

c. Reduce spending and increase aggregate demand

d. Reduce spending and reduce aggregate demand

Which of the following instruments of monetary policy is the most important means by which the money supply is controlled?

a. Changing the reserve ratio

b. Open-market operations

c. Manipulation of government spending

d. Changing the discount rate

B

FISCAL and MONETARY policies are created to effectively counter recessionary or inflationary tendencies.

FISCAL POLICY refers to government actions, such as taxes, subsidies, and government spending, designed to achieve economic goals.

Examples are:

✓ Reduction of taxes increases personal disposable income, which will stimulate economic activity.

✓ Increase in government spending may also stimulate the economy through subsidies and other reliefs.

An increase in deficit, either due to an increase in government spending or to a decrease in taxes, is called a FISCAL EXPANSION while an increase in taxes to reduce a deficit is called FISCAL CONTRACTION.

If a government were to use only fiscal policy to stimulate the economy from a recession, it would

a. Raise consumer taxes and increase government spending

b. Lower business taxes and government spending

c. Increase the money supply and increase government spending

d. Lower consumer taxes and increase government spending

The national budget deficit is the

a. total accumulation of the national government's surpluses and deficits

b. Excess national and local spending over their revenues

c. Amount by which the national government's expenditures exceed its revenues in a given year

d. Amount by which liabilities exceed assets on the national government's balance sheet

Which of the following is a tool of monetary policy that a nation's central bank could use to stabilize the economy during an inflationary period?

a. Selling government securities

b. Lowering bank reserve requirements

c. Lowering bank discount rates

d. Encouraging higher tax rates

Economists and economic policy makers are interested in the multiplier effect because the multiplier explains why

a. A small change in investment can have a much larger impact on gross domestic product

b. Consumption is always a multiple of savings

c. The money supply increases when deposits in the banking system increase

d. The velocity of money is less than one

Assume that the Congress passes a tax bill that provides for a "rebate" to taxpayers. One the goals of the rebate is

a. Increase consumer disposable income and expand the economy

b. Increase consumer disposable and contract the economy

c. Decrease consumer disposable income and expand the economy

d. Increase consumer disposable income and contract the economy

The rate of unemployment caused by changes in the composition of unemployment opportunities over time is referred to as the

a. Frictional unemployment rate

b. Structural unemployment rate

c. Cyclical unemployment rate

d. Full-employment unemployment rate

The producer price index measures

a. The price of a basket of commodities at the point of the first commercial sale

b. Price changes for all products sold by domestic producers to foreigners

c. Price changes of goods purchased for other countries

d. The price of a fixed market basket of goods and services purchased by typical urban consumers

Which of the following is true about deflation?

a. It motivates consumers to borrow money

b. It motivates businesses to make investments

c. It results in very low interest rates

d. It results in economic expansion

Economies often experience inflation but seldom experience long period of deflation. Which of the following is true about a deflationary economy?

a. Companies are hesitant to make investments

b. The lower prices encourage consumers to make major purchases

c. Interest rates tend to be high

d. Actual GDP is above potential GDP

What factors explains the difference between real and nominal interest rates?

a. Inflation risk

b. Credit risk

c. Default risk

d. Market risk

All of the following are true about international trade except that

a. the gains from international trade depend on specialization with comparative advantage

b. absolute advantage without comparative advantage does not result in gains from international trade

c. absolute advantage is defined as the ability of one nation to produce a product a relatively lower opportunity cost than other nation

d. Where there is a reciprocal absolute advantage between two countries, specialization will make it possible to produce more of each product

If the central bank of a country raises interest rates sharply, the country's currency will most likely

a. increase in relative value

b. remain unchanged in value

c. decrease in relative value

d. decrease sharply in value at first and then return to its initial value

Which one of the following groups would be the primary beneficiary of a tariff?

a. Domestic producers of export goods

b. Domestic producers of goods protected by the tariff

c. Domestic consumers of goods protected by the tariff

d. Foreign producers of goods protected by the tariff

In the law of comparative advantage, the country which should produce a specific product is determined by

a. Opportunity costs

b. Profit margins

c. Economic order quantities

d. Tariffs

Assuming exchange rates are allowed to fluctuate freely, which one of the following factors would likely cause a nation's currency to appreciate on the foreign exchange market?

a. A relatively rapid rate of growth in income that stimulates imports

b. A high rate of inflation relative to other countries

c. A slower rate of growth in income than in other countries, which causes imports to lag behind exports

d. Domestic real interest rates that are lower than real interest rates abroad

Exchange rates are determined by

a. Each industrial country's government

b. The International Monetary Fund

c. Supply and demand in the foreign currency market

d. Exporters and importers of manufactured goods

Which of the following measures creates the most restrictive barrier to exporting to a country?

a. Tariffs

b. Quotas

c. Embargoes

d. Exchange controls

When net exports are negative, there is a net flow of

a. Goods from firms in foreign countries to the domestic country

b. Money from foreign countries to the firms of the domestic country

c. Goods from the firms of the domestic country to foreign country

d. Goods and services which result in a trade surplus

Which of the following factors is least likely to affect a country's foreign currency exchange rates?

a. Interest rates in the country

b. Inflation in the country

c. Political stability in the country

d. The tax rate in the country

Patents are granted in order to encourage firms to invest in the research and development of new products. Patents are an example of

a. Vertical integration

b. market concentration

c. Entry barriers

d. Collusion

The distinguishing characteristic of oligopolistic market is

a. A single seller of a homogeneous product with no close substitutes

b. A single seller of a heterogeneous product with no close substitutes

c. Lack of entry and exit barriers in the industry

d. Mutual interdependence of firm pricing and output decisions

Economic markets that are characterized by monopolistic competition have all of the following characteristic except

a. One seller of the product

b. Economies or diseconomies of scale

c. Advertising

d. Heterogeneous products

Which type of economic market structure is characterized by a few large sellers of a product or service, engaging primarily in nonprice competition?

a. Monopoly

b. Oligopoly

c. Perfect competition

d. Monopolistic competition

Which type of economic market structure is composed of a large number of sellers, each producing an identical product, and with no significant barriers to entry and exit?

a. Monopoly

b. Perfect competition

c. Oligopoly

d. Monopolistic competition

A natural monopoly exists because

a. The firm owns natural resources

b. The firms hold patents

c. Economic and technical conditions permit only one efficient supplier

d. The government is the only supplier

A market with many independent firms, low barriers to entry, and product differentiation is best classified as

a. a monopoly

b. a natural monopoly

c. Monopolistic competition

d. an oligopoly

Which of the following is not a key assumption of perfect competition?

a. Firms sell a homogeneous product

b. Customers are indifferent about which firm they buy from

c. The level of a firm's output is small relative to the industry's total output

d. Each firm can price its product above the industry price

The ultimate purpose of competitor analysis is to

a. identify the competition

b. determine the competition's strength and weaknesses

c. identify the competition's major customers

d. understand and predict the behavior of the competition

Which of the following is not an important aspect of supply chain management?

a. Information technology

b. Accurate forecasts

c. Customer relations

d. Communications

Which of the following types of organizations would more likely engage in public relations type advertising?

a. An airline

b. a toy manufacturer

c. A hotel chain

d. An electric utility company

Target marketing analysis involves

a. Analyzing the firm's input markets

b. Understanding and segmenting the firm's customer markets

c. Analyzing the firm's market structure

d. Deciding on whether to offer a new product line

If a firm's customers are businesses, market segmentation might be performed along all of the following dimensions, except

a. Industry

b. Location

c. Lifestyle

d. Size

Which of the following is a defining characteristic of supply chain management?

a. Focuses on the sharing of information with suppliers and customers.

b. Focuses on redesigning processes

c. Focuses on improving quality

d. Focuses on strategic alliances

Which of the following is not a likely strategy for a firm in a purely competitive market?

a. Lean manufacturing

b. Supply chain management

c. Process reengineering

d. Development of a brand name

What is the purpose of a response profile in competitor analysis?

a. To develop an understanding of the firm's industry

b. To analyze the firm's strengths in relation to its competitors

c. To identify possible actions by competitors

d. To understand the nature of the firm's major markets

The process of dividing all potential consumers into smaller groups of buyers with distinct needs, characteristics, or behaviors, who might require a similar product or service mix, is called

a. Strategic planning

b. Market segmentation

c. Product positioning

d. Objective setting

Which of the following measures of unemployment would be of least importance to management when trying to predict the future state of the economy?

a. Structural unemployment

b. Cyclical unemployment

c. Frictional unemployment

d. Overall unemployment

An oligopolist faces a "kinked" demand curve. This terminology indicates that

a. When an oligopolist lowers its price, the other firms in the oligopoly will match the price reduction, but if the oligopolist raises its price, the other firms will ignore the price change

b. An oligopolist faces a nonlinear demand for its product, and price changes will have little effect on demand for that product

c. An oligopolist can sell its product at any price, but after the "saturation point" another oligopolist will lower its price and, therefore, shift the demand curve to the left

d. Consumers have no effect on the demand curve, and an oligopolist can shape the curve to optimize its own efficiency

Which of the following best describes the steps involved in performing competitor analysis?

a. Gathering information about the competitor and using it to predict the competitor's behavior

b. Determining the type of market structure and the number of competitors

c. Assessing the general environment and determining how that affects competition

d. Assessing the market structure to predict when new competitors will enter the market