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Which of the following is considered a strength of Descriptive Studies?
A. They can discern associations
B. They can establish causal relationships
C. They are relatively easy and expensive
D. They are relatively easy and quick to perform
E. They are not useful in Evidence Based Practice
D. They are relatively easy and quick to perform
All persons who possess the characteristics of interest and might be eligible for participation in a study are often referred to as:
A. Study participants
B. Study sample
C. Study population
D. Study subjects
C. Study population
In the Angiotensin-Neprilysin Inhibition versus Enalapril in Heart Failure trial (PARADIGM- HF), the authors concluded over the duration of the trial the numbers of patients who would need to have been treated to prevent one primary event and one death from cardiovascular causes were 21 and 32, respectively. Therefore, the numbers 21 and 32 may be referred to as:
A. The numbers needed to be statistically significant P< 0.005
B. The numbers needed to Treat (NNT)
C. The numbers needed to Harm (NNH)
D. The numbers needed to approve the study
B. The numbers needed to Treat (NNT)
Which of the following is considered a weakness of Meta-Analysis?
A. Represents a process of summing up research findings
B. Meta-Analysis can find studies relationships
C. Meta-analysis is subject to over interpretation of different studies
D. Meta- Analysis is heavily reliant on published studies
D. Meta- Analysis is heavily reliant on published studies
Systematic reviews and meta-analyses are considered the best source for providing evidence because
A: They combine clinical trials, cohort studies, case-control studies and expert opinion all in one study
B: They objectively summarize all available evidence to answer a specific question using rigorous selection criteria for inclusion of studies
C: They include all available information on a topic, regardless of where it was obtained
D: They are performed by experts who objectively summarize all available evidence to answer a specific question
B: They objectively summarize all available evidence to answer a specific question using rigorous selection criteria for inclusion of studies
The SPRINT trial which reported the results of the impact of intensive systolic BP control (< 120 mm Hg) on cardiovascular events when compared to standard BP control (< 140 mm Hg) is best considered what type of literature?
A: Primary
B: Secondary
C: Tertiary
D: Guidelines
A: Primary
Considering the difference in the mean age of Albuterol use in asthmatic patients, the authors concluded that there was a statistically significant difference in age between the two groups (p > 0.001). Which of the following statistical errors of the NULLHYPOTHSIS is most likely to be present in the findings of a research question? SATA
A: Type I only
B: Type II only
C: Both Type I and Type II
D: Neither Type I nor Type II
A: Type I only
Which of the following describes the Null Hypothesis for a noninferiority trial?
A: The new treatment is not noninferior to the active control
B: The new treatment is noninferior to the active control
C: The new treatment is equivalent to the active control
D: The new treatment is not different from the active control
A: The new treatment is not noninferior to the active control
In a statistical test of hypotheses, a Type I error is committed if: SATA
A: We reject the null hypothesis when, in fact, the null hypothesis is valid
B: We fail to reject the null hypothesis when, in fact, the null hypothesis is valid
C: We fail to reject the null hypothesis when, in fact, the null hypothesis is invalid
D: We reject the null hypothesis when, in fact, the null hypothesis is valid
A: We reject the null hypothesis when, in fact, the null hypothesis is valid
D: We reject the null hypothesis when, in fact, the null hypothesis is valid
The probability of making a Type 1 error is _________ Whereas, the probability of making a Type II error is_____________
A: Alpha and Beta respectively
B: Beta and Alpha respectively
C: Beta and Power respectively
D: Power and Beta respectively
A: Alpha and Beta respectively
Intention-to-treat analysis are often performed in most clinical trials; Intension-to-treat analysis are best described as:
A: Including in the analysis only the study subjects who completed the study
B: Including in the analysis only the study subjects who dropped out of the study
C: Including in the analysis all the study subjects randomized in the study
D: Including in the analysis only the study subjects who benefited from the study
E: Including in the analysis only the study subjects harmed by the study
C: Including in the analysis all the study subjects randomized in the study
Observation Studies are characteristic by the following. SATA
A: Observation studies are used to access causality
B: Observation studies are not subject to the assignment of participants to intervention group
C: Observation studies may help to generate hypothesis
D: Observation studies may be ideal because of financial concerns
E: Observation studies may be ideal because of ethical concerns
B: Observation studies are not subject to the assignment of participants to intervention group
C: Observation studies may help to generate hypothesis
D: Observation studies may be ideal because of financial concerns
E: Observation studies may be ideal because of ethical concerns
In study design, the term used to describe the group that received the inactive intervention is often referred to as:
A: Inactive group
B: Treatment group
C: Blinded group
D: Control group
E: Uncontrolled group
D: Control group
The following may be described as an advantage of a Case Control Study?
A: Case Control Study may be used to minimize Bias in the assessment of exposures
B: Case Control Study may be used to study Multiple diseases' outcomes
C: Case Control Study may be used to study the true incidence of the disease
D: Case Control Study may be used to study the etiology of a rare disease
D: Case Control Study may be used to study the etiology of a rare disease
Arrange the following in the order of providing the highest to the lowest level of evidence in Pharmacy practice.
A: Meta-Analysis > Randomized Clinical Trials (RCT) >Cohort study > Case Series
B: Case studies > Case Series > Cohort study>RCT>Meta-analysis
C: Meta-Analysis < Case Series < RTC < Cohort Study
D: Case study < Case series < Cohort study < RCT < Meta-Analysis
E: Case Series < Cohort < Meta-Analysis < RTC
D: Case study < Case series < Cohort study < RCT < Meta-Analysis
A pharmaceutical company wished to show that their new Zerbaxa drug is more efficacious than Doribax . The company enrolled 2,000 patients at different research centers in the US; worked with the treating physicians to ensure that patients were randomly assigned to either the new drug or Doribax. The physicians did not know which of their patients received the either drugs. This type of study is best described as:
A: Equivalence open trial
B: Inferiority trial
C: Single-blinded open label trial
D: Superiority trial
E: Non-inferiority trial
D: Superiority trial
Which of the following best illustrate a Descriptive Study? SATA
A: Case report study
B: Case series study
C: Case control study
D: Survey study
E: Cohort study
A: Case report study
B: Case series study
E: Cohort study
Eli Lilly Pharmaceutical company is determined to prove that their new chemotherapeutic agent is no worse than an existing chemo drug currently in the market. Please select the best study design to make this determination.
A: Superiority trial
B: Randomized clinical trial
C: Equivalence trial
D: Non-Inferiority trial
E: Inferiority trial
D: Non-Inferiority trial
Strengths of Prospective Cohort Studies include the following: SATA
A: Can establish time sequence data for causality
B: Can allow for accurate measurement of exposure
C: Can provide Prevalence data
D: Can provide incidence data
E: Can calculate Odds Ratio
A: Can establish time sequence data for causality
B: Can allow for accurate measurement of exposure
D: Can provide incidence data
Meta-Analysis is appropriate in which of the following?
A: Multiple studies which test similar hypotheses with conflicting results
B: Multiple studies which test similar hypotheses with same results
C: Multiple studies trying to review similar new research area
D: Multiple studies which test similar hypotheses with large sample sizes
E: Multiple studies which test similar hypotheses too complex to interpret
A: Multiple studies which test similar hypotheses with conflicting results
The process by which the Investigator Nor the patient knows which study group they are in is
double blinding
Article discussions of Original research about _________ that use Kaplan-Meier curves and Cox proportional hazards analysis provide statistical data about ___________.
1: time-to-event
2: hazard ratios (risk of event over time)
Define ANOVA and ANCOVA and describe their differences in statistical testing methodology. Which one is designed to test differences between means in many sample cases.
ANOVA: compares means with >3 groups
ANCOVA: is the same but only with covariates
The one for testing multiple means = ANOVA
If we have two sample study conditions we can use_______ if the difference between means is significant. When there are more than two sample then using t-test might become unreliable.
t-test
Wilcoxon Rank Sum Test is an example of a statistical test to study_________ how many cohorts.
Two Independent Cohorts
A Type 2 error occurs when we _______________the NULL HYPOTHESIS when it is false.
fail to reject
A Type 2 error occurs when we ________.
Fail to reject true null hypothesis
Reliability measurement is defined as producing the same ____________ times.
results repeated
The most commonly used method for comparing the safety profiles of two treatments is to compare the incidence rates of each adverse drug event.
a. True
b. False
a. True
The likelihood of bias is higher in ___________ blinded studies than________ label trials
1: single
2: open(double-blinded)