Immunology 2nd half of semester (through final)

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How does the mother know to not see her child as foreign?

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1

How does the mother know to not see her child as foreign?

Signals from fetus that causes corpus luteum to stay intact and secrete progesterone

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2

What are the four types of placental attachments?

  1. diffuse

  2. cotyledonary

  3. discoidal

  4. zonary

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3

What is diffuse placental attachment?

Attaches all across uterus

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4

What is cotyledonary placental attachment?

attaches to the uterus at certain points

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5

What analogy can diffuse placental attachment be related to?

velcrow

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6

What analogy can cotyledonary placental attachment be related to?

buttons

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7

What analogy can zonary placental attachment be related to?

a belt

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8

What is zonary placental attachment?

one section of the uterus covered by placenta

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9

What is discoidal placental attachment?

Only one spot where placenta and uterus attach

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10

What animal has discoidal placental attachment?

humans and mice

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11

What animal has zonary placental attachment?

cats and dogs

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12

What animal has diffuse placental attachment?

horse and pig

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13

What animal has cotyledonary placental attachment?

Cow and sheep

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14

What are the three layer options for placenta?

  1. epithelopchorial

  2. endotheliochorial

  3. Hemochorial

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15

What is epitheliochorial placenta?

6 layers of tissue in which the fetal chorion is in contact with the maternal epithelium

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16

What is endotheliochorial placenta?

5 layers of tissue in which the fetal chorion is in contact with the maternal endothelium

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17

What is hemochorial?

3 layers in which the fetal chorion is in contact with the maternal red blood cells

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18

Why do animal with epitheliochorial placenta need colostrum?

there is minimal antibody transfer

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19

Which placental type fosters the most developed immune system?

hemochorial

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20

Which type of placenta fosters the least developed immune system?

epitheliochorial

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21

What factors affect placental immunity?

stage of gestation, hormones, maternal factors

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22

What happens with inflammation in late gestation?

It increases for more fetal protection

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23

Does maternal disease mean the fetus will have disease?

NO

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24

What three ways do we protect the fetus by protecting the dam?

vaccination, nutrition, minimal stress

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25

Can we vaccinate pregnant animals?

Yes, 30-60 days before birth they should be boostered

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26

When should pregnant animals be vaccinated/boostered?

30-60 days prior to birth

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27

What two things impact fetal immunity?

maternal environment and placental type

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28

What is BVDV?

Bovine viral diarrhea virus

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29

What are the two types of BVDV?

cytopathic and noncytopathic

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30

What is the concern with noncytopathic BVDV?

although the offspring have no symptoms they can still shed the virus to others

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31

Which type of BVDV do the offspring show symptoms?

cytopathic

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32

Which type of BVDV do they offspring NOT show symptoms?

noncytopathic

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33

Why do noncytopathic BVDV offspring not show symtoms?

their T cells learn the viral antigen as "self" during training

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34

What three things can occur when there is fetal infection?

  1. nothing (fetus isnt completely helpless)

  2. mortality (embryonic or abortion)

  3. morbidity (defects)

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35

What is the importance of boostering vaccines 30-60 days prior to birth?

to increase antibody number in colostrum

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36

What is fetal programming?

How maternal environment affects fetus, neonate, and beyond

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37

What is epigenetic change?

change in the way our genes are expressed

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38

How formed is the immune system at birth?

fully formed but not as efficient

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39

What is a neonate?

0-45 days of age

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40

What placental type has the most maternal antibody transfer?

hemochorial

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41

What placental type has the least maternal antibody transfer?

epitheliochorial (no transfer)

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42

What placental type has most risk for infection?

hemochorial

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43

Do dairy of beef cattle have better quality colostrum?

beef

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44

Do dairy cattle or beef cattle have higher quantity of colostrum produced?

dairy

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45

When should we vaccinate neonates?

sweet spot between decline of maternal antibodies and development of own immunity

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46

What is the difference between colostrum replacer and colostrum supplement?

replacer has all required antibodies needed if there is no natural colostrum available while supplement has some antibodies and is used when colostrum quality is poor

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47

What should you give neonates in which their mom made poor quality colostrum?

colostrum supplement

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48

What should you give neonates in which their mother made NO colostrum?

colostrum replacer

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49

What is FPI?

failure of passive immunity

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50

Why is FPI important?

it is a major risk for infection

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51

What cells are responsible for colostrum antibody absorption?

M cells

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52

What period of time can colostrum antibodies be absorbed?

first 24 hours of life

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53

What happens to maternal antibody levels right after parturition?

decline

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54

What is the only antibody that can pass the placenta?

IgG

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55

What three things is colostrum rich in?

  1. energy

  2. antibodies

  3. maternal WBC

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56

Which type of placenta do offspring require colostrum?

epitheliochondrial

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57

What do most large animals lack when born?

IgG

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58

What is agammaglobulinemic?

lacking IgG at birth

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59

What kind of genetic code do bacteria have?

DNA

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60

What kind of genetic code do viruses have?

DNA or RNA

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61

What is a special type of PRR?

TLR

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62

What TLRs are seen with RNA viruses?

TLR 3, 7, 8

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63

What TLRs are seen with DNA viruses?

TLR 9

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64

What are a few examples of RNA viruses?

feline coronavirus, COVID, ferret coronavirus, influenza

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65

What are a few examples of DNA viruses?

Equine herpesvirus 1

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66

What do PRRs recognize when looking for viruses?

nucleic acids (TLR 3, 7, 8)

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67

What innate immune cells/innate immune functions are activated when a virus is present?

NKC; IFN and MHC1

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68

What do interferons do when a virus is detected?

  1. signal cells to put up barriers

  2. signal infected cells to die

  3. recruit WBC and activate macrophages

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69

What adaptive immune cells are activated when a virus is present?

Antibodies and cytotoxic T cells

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70

What is the surface marker for a cytotoxic T cell?

CD8

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71

Why are cytotoxic T cells mainly used in viral infections?

viruses are intracellular and cannot be helped with antibodies

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72

What cells are considered cell-mediated immunity?

T cells

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73

What cells are considered humoral immunity?

B cells

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74

How do cytotoxic T cells aid immunity?

use perforins and granzymes

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75

What happens to the CNS in Borna disease?

virus destroys CNS cells

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76

What happens in Canine adenovirus?

virus breaks down antigen-antibody complex

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77

What is a major diagnostic symptom of adenovirus?

blue eyes

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78

Where does canine distemper virus replicate?

lymphoid tissue

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79

What is antigenic shift?

when two strains of one virus use a common host to recombine into a new virus

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80

What is antigenic drift?

slow mutation of surface proteins over time

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81

What are the four main ways viruses can evade immune cells?

  1. mutating (antigenic drift/shift)

  2. inhibit NKC

  3. inhibit MHC1

  4. shut off IFN response

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82

Why is antigenic shift particularly bad?

it creates a whole new viral strain making it hard for the immune system to recognize it the next time

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83

What complement pathways are activated when bacteria binds innate immune cells?

innate and alternate

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84

Why isnt the classical complement pathway activated when bacteria bind to innate immune cells?

They require antibodies for activation

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85

What PRR is used to detect bacterial invasion?

TLR9 (because bacterial have DNA)

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86

What TLR is linked to foal resistance to rhodococcus equi?

TLR2

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87

What TLR is linked to chicken resistance to salmonella?

TLR4

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88

How do complement proteins aide in destruction of bacteria?

They form pores with the MAC to cause cell lysis

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89

What is MAC in relation to complement proteins?

membrane attack complex that forms a pore in the cell to cause lysis

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90

What two things are released by platelets?

antibacterial peptides and reactive oxygen species (ROS)

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91

What is the function of platelets?

bind to neutrophils to form aggregates

release ROS and antimicrobial peptides to fight bacteria

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92

What activates ILC3?

IL-23

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93

What is secreted by ILC3?

IL-22 and B cell growth factor

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94

What is the function of IL-22 secreted by ICL3?

causes intestinal cells to produce antimicrobial proteins for protection

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95

What happens if innate immune measures are insufficient for a bacterial invader?

adaptive immunity takes over when macrophages/dendritic cells phagocytose and present antigen to T/B cells

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96

What are the five mechanisms of immune response to bacterial infection?

  1. antibody neutralization of toxins

  2. complement proteins kill bacteria

  3. opsonization of bacteria by antibodies and/or complement proteins

  4. destruction of bacteria by macrophages

  5. Cytotoxic T cells kill bacteria

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97

How does an antibody neutralize a toxin?

by binding to it and preventing it from binding to a receptor

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98

What are a few examples of toxigenic bacteria?

clostridia and bacillus anthracis

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99

Can antibodies reverse effect once toxin has bound to the receptor?

no

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100

What occurs when a bacterium is resistant to initial phagocytosis?

opsonization

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