Bootcamp.com - Microscopy and Lab Techniques

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https://quizlet.com/303771481/bootcampcom-microscopy-and-lab-techniques-flash-cards/

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Biology

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118 Terms

1
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_____ adheres cells to microscope slides in their most lifelike state, and it makes it easier for those cells to be _____

fixation; stained

2
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describe the process of heat fixation

living cells are placed on a slide --> the slide is passed over a flame to kill/"glue" the cells to the slide --> stain is applied

<p>living cells are placed on a slide --&gt; the slide is passed over a flame to kill/"glue" the cells to the slide --&gt; stain is applied</p>
3
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_____ is the process of adding color to cells, which allows them to be viewed more easily under microscope

staining

<p>staining</p>
4
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most optical microscopy techniques can be used to view _____ samples of cells

living

5
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how does optical microscopy work?

it involves shining light on a sample that reflects off of it and passes through lenses that magnify the object

6
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_____ microscopy allows for higher magnification than _____ microscopy

electron, optical

7
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can electron microscopy be used to look at living specimens? why or why not?

no, due to fixation and staining

8
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most viruses are so small that they must be viewed using _____ microscopy.

electron

9
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how does electron microscopy work?

it bombards a sample with electrons that bounce off the sample and pass through magnetic fields onto a screen. The image produced is viewed indirectly on a computer.

10
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_____ are light microscopes that focus visible light to produce a 2D image of a sample's surface

stereo-microscopes (dissection microscopes)

<p>stereo-microscopes (dissection microscopes)</p>
11
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what is an advantage of stereo-microscopes (dissection microscopes)?

they are light microscopes that can be used to view living samples

12
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electron microscopy offers _____ (higher/lower) resolution than optical microscopy because the wavelength of an electron is _____ (larger/smaller) than that of light

higher; smaller

13
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what is a disadvantage of stereo-microscopes (dissection microscopes)?

they are light microscopes that have a low resolution

14
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_____ are light microscopes that focus visible light to produce a 2D image of thin samples (single cell layers)

compound microscopes

<p>compound microscopes</p>
15
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compound light microscopes usually have different _____, which gives them the ability to make more resolute images than a stereo-microscope (dissection light microscope)

lens magnifications

16
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what is an advantage of compound light microscopes?

they can be used to view 2D images of living samples (1 cell thick)

17
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what are some disadvantages of compound light microscopes?

they only view samples that are 1 cell thick and they have a poor contrast, which means some samples may need to be fixed & stained (killed)

18
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_____ are optical microscopes that use light phase changes and contrast to produce 2D image of thin samples

phase-contrast microscopes

<p>phase-contrast microscopes</p>
19
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what are some advantages of phase-contrast optical microscopes?

good resolution and contrast; can be used to observe thin samples of living cells - including their internal structures

20
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what are some disadvantages of phase-contrast optical microscopes?

ineffective on thick samples; halo effect around sample edges

21
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what are some strategies to reduce the halo effect of phase-contrast optical microscopy?

using phase plates to reduce the phase shift; use thinner samples

22
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_____ are fluorescent chemicals that will re-emit light upon being excited by another light source

fluorophores

<p>fluorophores</p>
23
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_____ is the emission of photons (light) from a particle that has absorbed light

fluorescence

24
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_____ and _____ are optical microscopy techniques that use laser light to produce 2D images of samples that have been tagged with fluorophores

fluorescence; confocal laser scanning

25
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what are some advantages of fluorescence optical microscopy?

colorful, 2D images of thin samples of living cells; increased brightness

<p>colorful, 2D images of thin samples of living cells; increased brightness</p>
26
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what are some disadvantages of fluorescence optical microscopy?

fluorescence sometimes creates distortions (artifacts) that reduce the resolution

27
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what are some advantages of confocal laser scanning optical microscopy?

colorful, 2D images of thin samples of living cells; view chromosomes during mitosis; overcomes fluorescence artifacts (higher resolution)

28
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what are some disadvantages of confocal laser scanning optical microscopy?

reduced light intensity and longer illumination times than fluorescence optical microscopy

29
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in _____, only scattered light from the sample is transmitted to produce 2D images of unstained, living cells

dark field optical microscopy

<p>dark field optical microscopy</p>
30
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what is an advantage of dark field optical microscopy?

excellent contrast on living samples of unstained cells (black background)

31
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what is a disadvantage of dark field optical microscopy?

low light intensity

32
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in electron microscopy, electrons are shot through a _____ at a sample which has been fixed and

metal coated (cells are dead)

vacuum

(the vacuum prevents electrons from deviating in path)

<p>vacuum</p><p>(the vacuum prevents electrons from deviating in path)</p>
33
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_____ captures electrons that are scattered by atoms found on the surface of dehydrated samples

scanning electron microscopy (SEM)

<p>scanning electron microscopy (SEM)</p>
34
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what is an advantage of SEM?

high resolution, 3D images of sample surfaces

35
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what are some disadvantages of SEM?

it is costly, and the fixation/staining/dehydration kills the sample

36
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_____ is like SEM, but the sample is frozen instead of dehydrated

cryo-scanning electron microscopy (cryo-SEM)

37
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what are some advantages of cryo-SEM?

high resolution, 3D images of sample surfaces, which are presented in a more natural form than SEM (due to freezing)

38
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what are some disadvantages of cryo-SEM?

it is costly, and the fixation/staining/freezing kills the sample

39
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_____ captures electrons that are transmitted through a thin slice of a sample

transmission electron microscopy (TEM)

<p>transmission electron microscopy (TEM)</p>
40
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what are some advantages of TEM?

high resolution 2D images of internal sample structures

41
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what are some disadvantages of TEM?

it is costly, and the extensive sample preparation kills all living cells

42
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_____ integrates multiple TEM 2D images into a 3D model

electron tomography

(not a form of microscopy)

43
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what are some advantages of electron tomography?

can look at objects and their relative positions in 3D

44
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what are some disadvantages of electron tomography?

it is costly, and the extensive sample preparation kills all living cells

(because it is based on TEM)

45
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is SEM or TEM used to look at surfaces?

SEM

46
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what are hemocytometers?

cell counting chambers

<p>cell counting chambers</p>
47
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_____ are used to estimate the number of cells plated on a growth medium

colony forming units (CFUs)

<p>colony forming units (CFUs)</p>
48
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colony forming units (CFUs) are based on the assumption that each viable cell initially plated gave rise to a _____

colony

<p>colony</p>
49
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what are 2 methods for automated cell counting?

electrical resistance and flow cytometry

<p>electrical resistance and flow cytometry</p>
50
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as cells show electrical resistance and impede conductance, the _____ in a solution can be estimated by observing the flow of electricity

number of cells

51
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in _____, cells pass through a very narrow tube and can be counted via detection by a laser beam.

flow cytometry

<p>flow cytometry</p>
52
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_____ is the process where cell contents are separated into their fractions (one part of a whole) by centrifugation

cell fractionation

<p>cell fractionation</p>
53
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a _____ is a laboratory apparatus that spins in a circular path at very high speeds.

centrifuge

<p>centrifuge</p>
54
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centrifugation separates cell components through _____

mass, density, and/or shape

55
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in centrifugation, the densest and most compact particles will _____ to the bottom of the tube first, becoming pressed together as a _____ (precipitate)

sediment; pellet

(top liquid is the supernatant)

56
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centrifugation can be used to separate _____ based on solubility

proteins

(insoluble proteins pellet out, while the soluble proteins remain in the supernatant)

57
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in _____, cells are split open with a blender and the resulting homogenate is separated based on mass, density, and/or shape

differential centrifugation

(the homogenate is centrifuged/fractionated)

<p>differential centrifugation</p><p>(the homogenate is centrifuged/fractionated)</p>
58
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_____ centrifugation separates cell contents in just 1 spin step, creating multiple layers separated by density

density

e.g. blood centrifugation

<p>density</p><p>e.g. blood centrifugation</p>
59
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arrange the following organelles from most to least dense: endoplasmic reticulum (ER), ribosomes, mitochondria, nuclei, chloroplasts

nuclei > mitochondria/chloroplast > ER fragments >

ribosomes

60
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_____ is the observation of chromosomes under a light microscope using staining

karyotyping

<p>karyotyping</p>
61
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a karyotype shows both the _____ of chromosomes and their _____

number; physical appearance

<p>number; physical appearance</p>
62
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karyotyping is preformed during _____

metaphase

63
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_____ is a condition that results in a third copy of chromosome 21, and _____ allows for substantiation of its diagnosis

Down syndrome (or trisomy 21); karyotyping

<p>Down syndrome (or trisomy 21); karyotyping</p>
64
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for the most part, the human genome is the same, with slight differences in the sequence every ~ 1000 nucleotides (called _____), which serve as markers for genes that cause disease

single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs)

65
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what are the 2 most common methods for DNA sequencing?

dideoxy chain termination (Sanger sequencing) and next generation sequencing

66
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_____ is an older and more established method of DNA sequencing, while _____ is used more often now because it is quicker and cheaper

dideoxy chain termination (Sanger sequencing); next generation sequencing

67
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_____ is produced when DNA fragments from different sources are joined together

recombinant DNA

<p>recombinant DNA</p>
68
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a _____ occurs when there is a block of nucleotides that are inverted mirrors of each other

palindromic sequence

<p>palindromic sequence</p>
69
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the DNA fragments that get incorporated into recombinant DNA are produced by _____, which tend to cut DNA at palindromic sequences to produce _____ ends

restriction enzymes; sticky or blunt

70
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sticky ends have _____, which makes it easy for complementary sticky ends to hybridize

unpaired nucleotides

(complimentary sticky ends are made by the same restriction enzyme)

<p>unpaired nucleotides</p><p>(complimentary sticky ends are made by the same restriction enzyme)</p>
71
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_____ are less common than sticky ends, and they do not have unpaired nucleotides

blunt ends

(blunt ends are harder to hybridize because of the paired nucleotides)

<p>blunt ends</p><p>(blunt ends are harder to hybridize because of the paired nucleotides)</p>
72
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_____ are unique lengths of DNA that result from restriction enzymes, allowing for the comparison between individuals

restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLPs)

<p>restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLPs)</p>
73
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a _____ is a group of nucleotides that repeats multiple times in a stretch of DNA

short tandem repeats (STRs)

74
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in which individuals are RFLPs and STRs not unique?

twins

75
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RFLPs and STRs are used in _____, which is a technique that may be used in paternity and forensic cases

DNA fingerprinting

76
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the _____ is an automated biotechnology process that can quickly create millions of

copies of DNA, and it requires no cells

polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

77
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PCR can be carried out in a single container - list the components that container needs to contain in order for PCR to take place:

DNA to be cloned; nucleotides; DNA primers; heat-resistant DNA polymerase (Taq polymerase)

78
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what are the 3 cyclical steps of PCR?

denaturation; primer annealing; elongation

<p>denaturation; primer annealing; elongation</p>
79
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bacterial cloning is an important technique to produce medicines because _____ are cloned in _____

eukaryotic gene products; prokaryotic cells

(note that the insulin gene is obtained as cDNA from processed human mRNA)

80
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_____ corresponds to a eukaryotic gene with all introns removed (used in microarrays and bacterial cloning)

processed mRNA

<p>processed mRNA</p>
81
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_____ is DNA made from RNA, and it is used in microarrays and bacterial cloning

complementary DNA (cDNA)

82
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_____ produces complementary DNA (cDNA) from mRNA, and it is relied upon for microarrays and bacterial cloning

reverse transcriptase

83
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_____ catalyzes phosphodiester bonds between the ends of DNA restriction fragments (used heavily in genomic libraries and bacterial cloning)

DNA ligase

<p>DNA ligase</p>
84
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_____ are circular pieces of extrachromosomal DNA in bacteria (used in bacterial cloning and genomic libraries)

plasmids

<p>plasmids</p>
85
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a _____ is a piece of DNA (such as a plasmid) that can be taken up by competent cells

vector

(used heavily in genomic libraries and bacterial cloning)

<p>vector</p><p>(used heavily in genomic libraries and bacterial cloning)</p>
86
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_____ is a process that occurs when a cell's genome is changed by the addition of DNA that was once floating freely in the environment

transformation

<p>transformation</p>
87
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competent bacterial cells can undergo _____, and they can be made competent through _____

transformation; electroporation

88
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_____ is a process where electricity is applied to cells, creating temporary holes in the plasma membrane

electroporation

89
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what are 2 key methods for selecting bacterial cells that have undergone transformation in bacterial cloning?

antibiotic resistance and color change

90
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gel electrophoresis separates macromolecular fragments on their _____ and _____

charge; size

<p>charge; size</p>
91
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gel electrophoresis has a _____ (positive/negative) _____ (anode/cathode) at the top and a _____ (positive/negative) _____ (anode/cathode) at the bottom

negative cathode at the top; positive anode at the bottom

92
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in gel electrophoresis, the _____ (smallest/largest) fragments travel the furthest

smallest

<p>smallest</p>
93
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a _____ is a fluorescent or radioactively labeled tool that allows scientists to identify a specific sequence within a large sample

probe

94
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_____ is an electrophoresis technique for separating DNA fragments, and it uses _____ probes

southern blotting; DNA

<p>southern blotting; DNA</p>
95
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_____ is an electrophoresis technique for separating RNA fragments, and it uses _____ probes

northern blotting; RNA

<p>northern blotting; RNA</p>
96
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_____ is an electrophoresis technique for separating proteins, and it uses _____ as the probes

western blotting; primary and secondary antibodies

<p>western blotting; primary and secondary antibodies</p>
97
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southern and northern blotting tend to use _____ gel, whereas western blotting tends to use _____

agarose; SDS-PAGE

98
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_____ is a technology to determine if a specific antigen exists in a person, aiding in the diagnoses/exposure to certain diseases

enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

99
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ELISA is based on the idea that a person will have _____ for a given disease's _____ if they have the disease, or have been exposed to it

antibodies; antigens

100
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_____ experiments allow for the visualization/tracking of molecules of interest throughout a cell

pulse chase

<p>pulse chase</p>