Small Animal Nursing I

______ develop over bony prominences as the result of skin compression on hard surfaces during long periods of recumbency.

Decubitus ulcers

Once a wound heals, the wound tissue will be

weaker than the original tissue

What type of sling is used to immobilize all of the joints on a forelimb?

Velpeau sling

_______-degree burns are full-thickness injuries characterized by a thick, leathery, often black layer of dead dermis.

Third

For optimal effectiveness in immobilization, a cast must immobilize

the joint proximal and distal to the injury

When clipping hair from the edges of a skin wound to prepare it for primary closure, ______ should be placed over the wound.

water-soluble lubricant

When monitoring distal limb bandages an increased distance between the toe nails indicates

swelling

Distal limb bandages are not appropriate for fractures above the ______ or the ________ because they cannot effectively immobilize injuries above those joints.

elbow;stifle

_______ is marked by fibroblasts and endothelial cells entering the wound.

Proliferative phase

What must occur in order for a wound to be considered closed by primary closure?

Closure must precede granulation tissue formation

If fluid strike-through of the tertiary layer of a bandage occurs,

Bacteria from the environment can penetrate the bandage and contaminate the wound

This bandage relies on an extremely thick secondary layer such as cast padding or cotton, which is tightly compressed to cause uniform compression of the distal limb.

Robert Jones

Why is honey applied in wound management?

It has antimicrobial effects

Which of the following is true regarding bite wounds?

They often require the use of drains in their treatment

A(n) ________ is a nonweight-bearing sling applied to the pelvic limb to protect the hip joint after injury.

Ehmer

The ______________, the first phase of wound healing, begins immediately

Inflammatory phase

It is imperative to use a(n) ____________ primary layer once granulation tissue has formed or epithelialization has begun, to protect and promote second intention wound healing.

Non-adherent

The inflammatory phase lasts for 3 to 5 days and is often called the lag phase because,

Wound strength is at its lowest during this phase

_________ migrate across healthy granulation tissue to reestablish a barrier between the wound and the environment.

Epithelial cells

Passive drains are left in place for how long before removal and skin closure?

3-5 days

Of the four components of the development of disease, which one is involved with how the disease progresses in the presence of the pathogenic agent?

Pathogenesis

_ is the coughing up of blood

Hemoptysis

_ is abnormally frequent urination

Pollakiuria

_ are inanimate objects, such as water bowls, cages, clipper blades, and scrubs on which pathogens can survive and be transmitted

Fomites

Which group of dogs would be expected to have the lowest heart rate?

Adult dogs

A capillary refill time (CRT) of ______ is considered normal for dogs and cats

<2 seconds

_____ is the study of the causation or origination of disease.

Etiology

What is the purpose of the nursing process?

Provide standardized patient care

What is the FIRST step in the nursing process?

Assessment

Which of the following is not a core canine vaccine?

Bordetella bronchiseptica

What type of pathogen causes infectious disease?

Pathogenic microorganisms

Which term describes a disease that can be transmitted from animals to humans?

Zoonoses

How is a vector-borne disease typically transmitted? 

Via a biological vector like a tick or flea

What is the primary goal in controlling infectious diseases? 

Interrupt the infection process

Which feline disease is also known as feline infectious enteritis?

Panleukopenia

Which of the following is a shared vector zoonosis?

Lyme disease

What does the term "reverse zoonoses" refer to?

Human to Animal Transmission

Which control method is best for pathogens on fomites?

Sterilization

Feline upper respiratory disease is commonly caused by: 

FCV and FHV-1

Exposure to a pathogen always results in disease?

False

Rabies is considered a core vaccine for both dogs and cats. 

True

Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (FIV) is transmitted by fleas

False

A 20 kg dog presents in hypovolemic shock secondary to acute hemorrhage. The veterinarian orders an isotonic crystalloid bolus (e.g., LRS). Based on the properties of crystalloids, which of the following best explains why a relatively large volume is required to effectively support blood pressure?

Only about 25% of isotonic crystalloids remain intravascular, while the majority distributes into the interstitial space.

A 32 kg dog presents in septic shock with persistent hypotension despite receiving two isotonic crystalloid boluses. The veterinarian elects to administer a synthetic colloid.

Which of the following best explains the rationale for choosing a synthetic colloid in this case?

Synthetic colloids expand plasma volume by increasing oncotic pressure within the intravascular space.

A 6-year-old dog receiving a packed red blood cell transfusion begins to develop erythema along the pinnae, urticaria over the trunk, and persistent pruritus 20 minutes after the transfusion is initiated. Vital signs remain stable, and there is no evidence of hemolysis.

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate immediate nursing action?

Stop the transfusion and notify the veterinarian immediately

A 6-year-old dog is receiving a packed red blood cell transfusion. The first 15 minutes are considered the most critical monitoring period.

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for assessing physical exam parameters and vital signs every 15 minutes during this initial phase?

To detect early transfusion reactions before they progress to life-threatening complications

Which of the following in not one of the commonly cited “Five Freedoms of Animal Welfare”?

Freedom from ownership

What substance in the pleural space is responsible for pyothorax?

Pus

Which respiratory disease will be characterized by a "doughnut" appearance on thoracic radiographs? 

Asthma

List two causes of brachycephalic airway syndrome:

Elongated Soft Palate; Everted laryngeal saccules

What respiratory disease commonly presents with clinical signs such as cachexia, tachypnea, and a persistent cough?

Bronchitis

Which respiratory disease condition is characterized by a “honking” cough and is commonly seen in toy breeds?

Tracheal collapse

Cyanosis is a common clinical sign associated with pneumonia

True

Which diagnosis procedure involves inserting a catheter through the skin into the trachea to collect airway samples?

Transtracheal wash

What respiratory condition can result from aspiration, bacterial, viral, or fungal infections and presents with mucopurulent nasal discharge?

Pneumonia

Pleural Effusion leads to labored, shallow breathing because it prevents normal lung expansion.

True

Which respiratory condition is marked by rapid breathing, tachycardia, and collapse, and can result from trauma or a clotting disorder?

Hemothorax

Coupage and nebulization are supportive treatments commonly used for bronchitis.

True

A patient may transiently cough after a transoral tracheal wash procedure. 

True

Which condition can result from a foreign body infiltration or bite wounds and often requires indwelling chest tubes?

Pyothorax

Name the respiratory disease that may be surgically treated by shortening an elongated soft palate and removing everted laryngeal saccules.

Brachycephalic airway syndrome

The term seborrhea refers to what?

Flowing oil

An example of a burrowing, zoonotic, non-host specific mite is:

Sarcoptes scabei

What is usually the first sign of food allergy in dogs?

Otitis externa

What is a novel protein

a protein source that the animal has never ingested

Which property of a anti-seborrhea repairs the skin?

Keratoplastic

What component of a pyoderma shampoo is most important?

Antibacterial

What is the purpose of examining an impression smear of a skin lesion

identify presence of bacteria and/or yeast

Cats with flea allergy dermatitis typically only show localized lesions on the tailhead region.

False

Excessive scale formation, greasy skin/hair, and secondary inflammation due to faulty keratinization describe the disease process of __________.

Seborrhea

Which new treatment for atopic dermatitis is a monoclonal antibody that provides relief for 4-8 weeks with a single injection?

Cytopoint

What type of mange is non-zoonotic

Demodicosis

Dermatophytosis colonies on DTM are typically green or black when positive

False

An ovariohysterectomy might be performed for all of the following reasons except:

prevention of prostate cancer

Which of the following statements regarding pyometra is false?

The dog that goes to surgery will have only her uterus removed

An incision into the bladder is known as a:

Cystotomy

Which of the following conditions does the term mastitis refer to?

An infection of a mammary gland

An accumulation of purulent discharge within the uterus is called:

Pyometritis

Which of the following is a postpartum complication caused by hypocalcemia?

Eclampsia

Prescription kidney diets have what characteristic

Low protein so kidneys dont have to work as hard

Which parameter is NOT part of a urinalysis?

BUN

Which test is used to determine if the kidneys can concentrate urine?

USG

Acidifying diets will help prevent what type of bladder stone

Struvite

Urethral obstructions in cats can be fatal because severe metabolic disturbances can occur

True

Struvite crystals are most likely to form in urine with a pH:

> 7.0

Which emergency condition can cause bradycardia, hyperkalemia, and possible bladder rupture?

Urethral obstruction

Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is characterized by an irreversible, progressive loss of functioning renal tissue. Clinical signs relate to

All are correct

__ is abnormally frequent urination

Pollakiuria