BIOL 204 Final Exam

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1. Which of the following is formatted correctly?

A. Streptococcus Pneumoniae

B. streptococcus pneumoniae

C. Streptococcus pneumoniae

D. Streptococcus Pneumoniae

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1. Which of the following is formatted correctly?

A. Streptococcus Pneumoniae

B. streptococcus pneumoniae

C. Streptococcus pneumoniae

D. Streptococcus Pneumoniae

C. Streptococcus pneumoniae

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2. In scientific (binomial) nomenclature, a genus is designated by:

A. The first word of the name

B. The second word of the name

C. Both the first and second words of the name together

D. Either the first or the second word of the name

A. The first word of the name

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3. Which of the following would be considered part of your human microbiome (choose all that apply)?

A. A species of bacteria that was found on your skin every time you tested it

B. A species of bacteria that was found in your stool once, but never again

C. A virus that was found in your stool every time you tested it

D. A yeast that was found in your mouth once, but never again

E. A species of bacteria that is currently causing you to have pneumonia

A. A species of bacteria that was found on your skin every time you tested it

C. A virus that was found in your stool every time you tested it

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4. Name two benefits that the members of your microbiome give you:

(1) They make it harder for pathogenic microbes to infect you

(2) Some members of your microbiome produce vitamins that your body absorbs and uses

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5. Which of the following are prokaryotic cellular life forms (choose all that apply)?

A. Algae

B. Archaea

C. Bacteria

D. Fungi

E. Helminths

F. Protozoa

G. Viruses

B. Archaea

C. Bacteria

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6. Which early microbiologist, working in the 1600s, first viewed the chambers in a slice of cork and called them "cells"?

A. Robert Hooke

B. Robert Koch

C. Anton von Leuweenhoek

D. Louis Pasteur

A. Robert Hooke

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7. Macrophages (a type of white blood cell) are approximately 40 micrometers in diameter. Express this measurement in nanometers.

A. 0.004 nm

B. 0.04 nm

C. 4000 nm

D. 40000 nm

D. 40000 nm

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8. The shortest wavelength of visible light is 400 nanometers. Express this measurement in micrometers.

A. 0.04 um

B. 0.4 um

C. 4000 um

D. 400000 um

B. 0.4 um

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9. Which resolving power gives you a clearer image?

A. 5 m

B. 0.5 m

B. 0.5 m

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10. If you are using a compound microscope with an objective lens magnification of 10x and an ocular lens magnification of 10x, what is the total magnification of the image you see?

A. 10x

B. 20x

C. 90x

D. 100x

D. 100x

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11. Which microscopy technique uses visible light, captures rays that are bent as they pass around edges in the specimen, and produces an image with enhanced contrast between clear structures?

A. Brightfield

B. Confocal

C. Darkfield

D. Fluorescence

E. Phase-contrast

E. Phase-contrast

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12. Which microscopy technique uses a narrow beam of light to illuminate one plane of the specimen at a time, producing very clear images that can be assembled into 3-D by a computer?

A. Brightfield

B. Confocal

C. Darkfield

D. Fluorescence

E. Phase-contrast

B. Confocal

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13. Which microscopy technique passes a beam of electrons directly perpendicular to the specimen, producing extremely high-resolution images that look like cross-sections?

A. Confocal

B. Scanning Electron

C. Scanned Probe

D. Transmission Electron

D. Transmission Electron

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14. Which microscopy technique moves a probe over the surface of the specimen, producing an image of the surface shape, even of single molecules?

A. Confocal

B. Scanning Electron

C. Scanned Probe

D. Transmission Electron

C. Scanned Probe

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15. A staining process that results in some types of bacteria being one color, and other types being a different color, is called a(n):

A. Counterstain

B. Decolorizer

C. Differential stain

D. Mordant

E. Primary stain

F. Simple stain

C. Differential stain

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16. In a differential stain, the dye that is used first, and initially stains all the bacteria, is called a(n):

A. Counterstain

B. Decolorizer

C. Differential stain

D. Mordant

E. Primary stain

F. Simple stain

E. Primary stain

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17. At the end of the gram-stain process, gram-positive bacteria appear:

A. Brown

B. Clear

C. Purple

D. Reddish-pink

C. Purple

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18. In the gram-stain process, after crystal violet is applied to the smear, gram-negative bacteria appear:

A. Brown

B. Clear

C. Purple

D. Reddish-pink

C. Purple

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19. I am a single-celled organism that has 6 linear chromosomes which are located inside a nucleus. I also have mitochondria, lysosomes, Golgi bodies, and endoplasmic reticulum. My ribosomes are 80S size. I am a(n):

A. Eukaryote

B. Prokaryote

A. Eukaryote

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20. Classify each of the following as pertaining to eukaryotes (write "E" in the blank), prokaryotes (write "P" in the blank), or both eukaryotes and prokaryotes (write both "E" and "P" in the blank).

___ Histones

__ Ribosomes

___ 70S ribosomes

__ Meiosis

___ Binary fission

__ Linear chromosomes

__E_ Histones

_E,P_ Ribosomes

__P_ 70S ribosomes

__E_ Meiosis

_P__ Binary fission

_E__ Linear chromosomes

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21-24: Classify each of the following as (E) eukaryotic, or (P) prokaryotic

21. Animals

22. Archaea

23. Plants

24. Protozoa

21. Animals E

22. Archaea P

23. Plants E

24. Protozoa E

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25. The cells drawn below have what shape and arrangement?

(chain of rod-shaped bacteria)

A. diplococcus

B. tetrad

C. streptococcus

D. staphylococcus

E. diplobacilli

F. streptobacilli

G. coccobacilli

F. streptobacilli

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26. A structure possessed by some bacteria, which is outside of the cell wall, and made up of polysaccharides (plus some protein and nucleic acids), which are loosely attached to the cell, and which provide protection and the ability to stick to surfaces is a(n):

A. capsule

B. fimbrae

C. outer membrane

D. slime layer

D. slime layer

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27. Long, stiff structures possessed by some bacteria with stick out from the cell and help it pull itself over surfaces or connect with another bacterial cell (in conjugation) are called:

A. glycocalyx

B. fimbrae

C. flagella

D. pili

D. pili

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28. The region within a bacterial cell that contains the chromosome is called the:

A. endospore

B. nucleoid

C. nucleus

D. plasmid

B. nucleoid

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29. A bacterium whose cell wall consists of a thick layer of peptidoglycan and does not have an outer membrane is:

A. gram-positive

B. gram-negative

A. gram-positive

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30. An "acid fast" cell wall:

A. Includes an extra lipid bilayer around the outside

B. Includes a waxy substance around the outside

C. Is made up of acidic proteins

B. Includes a waxy substance around the outside

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31. Long, thin, flexible structures possessed by some eukaryotic cells, which bend and wave to propel the cell through liquid are called:

A. cilia

B. fimbrae

C. flagella

D. pili

C. flagella

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32. A phospholipid bilayer that is found in all living cells, and which maintains chemically separate compartments between the cell and its environment is called the:

A. capsule

B. glycocalyx

C. outer membrane

D. plasma membrane

D. plasma membrane

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33. A network of membranes inside eukaryotic cells which is involved in the manufacture and transport of proteins that will be secreted or stuck in a membrane is called:

A. endoplasmic reticulum (rough)

B. endoplasmic reticulum (smooth)

C. Golgi body

D. lysosome

E. vacuoles

A. endoplasmic reticulum (rough)

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34. A structure consisting of a stack of hollow, flattened membranes, which process proteins for secretion or inclusion in a membrane is called:

A. endoplasmic reticulum (rough)

B. endoplasmic reticulum (smooth)

C. Golgi body

D. lysosome

E. vacuoles

C. Golgi body

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35. Your colleague discovers a new kind of microorganism. He tells you it is a eukaryote. You can conclude that the organism (choose all that apply):

A. Definitely has pili

B. Might have pili

C. Definitely does not have pili

D. Definitely has flagella

E. Might have flagella

F. Definitely does not have flagella

G. Definitely has a cell wall

H. Might have a cell wall

I. Definitely does not have a cell wall

C. Definitely does not have pili

E. Might have flagella

H. Might have a cell wall

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36. Explain, in plain English, what the following sentence means: "Glucose oxidase is more specific for glucose than hexokinase is."

The enzymes glucose oxidase and hexokinase both catalyze reactions using glucose as a substrate. Hexokinase can sometimes catalyze reactions using substrates other than glucose, but glucose oxidase is more strictly limited to using just glucose.

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37. Based on what you know about enzymes, explain why immersing food in vinegar (pickling) prevents it from spoiling.

Vinegar has a low pH, which inhibits the growth of most food-spoilage microorganisms by preventing their enzymes from working.

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38. An enzyme that needs a separate non-protein molecule in order to be active, and which is currently lacking that molecule is called a(n):

A. Active site

B. Apoenzyme

C. Coenzyme

D. Cofactor

E. Holoenzyme

F. Inhibitor

G. Proenzyme

H. Substrate

B. Apoenzyme

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39. Which of the following prevents an enzyme from catalyzing any reaction by binding to the enzyme in some place other than the active site?

A. A competitive inhibitor

B. A noncompetitive inhibitor

B. A noncompetitive inhibitor

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40. Explain what 'feedback inhibition' means, and why it is often useful to cells.

Feedback inhibition is the phenomenon whereby the final product of a metabolic pathway (for example an amino acid) acts as an inhibitor to the first enzyme at the beginning of the pathway. Feedback inhibition helps the cell control the amount of product it manufactures—when there is very little product around, the enzymes can actively make more product. However, as more product accumulates, the enzymes become more and more inhibited, and so make less product. This way, the cell doesn't waste energy making more product than it really needs.

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41. The gain of electrons by an atom or molecule is called:

A. Anabolism

B. Catabolism

C. Metabolism

D. Oxidation

E. Reduction

E. Reduction

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42. When a biological molecule is oxidized, hydrogen atoms are usually:

A. gained

B. lost

C. there is no change in hydrogen atoms

B. lost

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43. Which step of the whole respiration process yields the most ATP?

A. Glycolysis

B. The Kreb's cycle

C. The electron transport chain

C. The electron transport chain

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44. Explain what "anaerobic respiration" means.

In anaerobic respiration, glucose (or other substrate) is broken down to make ATP using all three of the normal respiration steps (glycolysis, Krebs' cycle, electron transport chain), but at the end of the electron transport chain, the accumulated electrons combine with some molecule other than oxygen (for example nitrate or sulfate).

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45. An organism that obtains its ATP by capturing light energy, and its carbon from pre-existing organic compounds, is classified as a(n):

A. Chemoautotroph

B. Chemoheterotroph

C. Photoautotroph

D. Photoheterotroph

D. Photoheterotroph

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46. An organism that can grow at 0°C, and grows best around 10°C, is described as a(n):

A. Psychrophile

B. Psychrotroph

C. Mesophile

D. Thermophile

E. Hyperthermophile

A. Psychrophile

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47. Explain why increasing or decreasing the pH of a food product prevents spoilage.

Because most food-spoilage microorganisms depend for their metabolic reactions on enzymes that don't work very well at extreme pHs.

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48. An organism such as Escherichia coli, which can live in either an anaerobic atmosphere (such as the colon) or an aerobic atmosphere (such as a lab bench) is described as a(n):

A. obligate aerobe

B. microaerophile

C. facultative anaerobe

D. aerotolerant anaerobe

E. obligate anaerobe

F. capnophile

C. facultative anaerobe

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49. Explain what "quorum sensing" is.

Quorum sensing is when a population of microorganisms detects the size of their own population (by detecting the concentration of some chemical that all of them secrete), and change their behavior (i.e. their gene expression) based on that.

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50. The formula for BG-11 media for culturing cyanobacteria includes (among other things) 0.046 mM of boric acid, 0.184 mM of calcium chloride, 2.16 x 10-4 mM cupric sulfate, 0.046 mM ferric ammonium citrate, and 17.65 mM of sodium nitrate. Based on this information, BG-11 media can be classified as:

A. chemically defined

B. complex

A. chemically defined

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51. Explain why it is important to be sure you are working with a pure culture when you are performing an experiment.

Your experimental results will probably be misleading, or at least confusing, if they're being affected by more than one species of microbe (especially if you don't realize that's what's happening!)

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52. In what phase of culture growth are some of the bacteria dividing, but an equal number of them are dying?

A. lag

B. log

C. stationary

D. death

C. stationary

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53. Which method of counting bacteria involves making dilutions of your sample, incubating the dilutions, counting the number of replicates of each dilution that show bacterial growth, and using a table to determine the number of bacteria in the original sample?

A. Counting Chamber

B. Filtration

C. Most Probable Number

D. Plate Counts

C. Most Probable Number

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54. Which method of estimating microbial populations works best for organisms like fungi, that form masses of filaments instead of individual cells?

A. Dry weight

B. Metabolic activity

C. Tubidometry/nephelometry

A. Dry weight

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55. If 1 mL of Solution 1 is mixed with 19 mL of diluent, what is the dilution you have just made?

A. 1 in 10

B. 1 in 19

C. 1 in 20

D. 1 in 100

C. 1 in 20

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56. If 1 mL of Solution 1 is mixed with 99 mL of diluent to make Solution 2, and then 1 mL of Solution 2 is mixed with 9 mL of diluent, what is the final, total dilution of the resulting solution?

A. 1 in 10

B. 1 in 100

C. 1 in 108

D. 1 in 110

E. 1 in 1000

E. 1 in 1000

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57. A 1 in 10 dilution of a water sample is made. One (1) mL of the dilution is spread over the surface of an agar plate. After incubation, 50 bacterial colonies are counted on the plate. What was the concentration of bacteria in the original water sample?

A. 5 CFUs/mL

B. 50 CFUs/mL

C. 500 CFUs/mL

D. 5000 CFUs/mL

C. 500 CFUs/mL

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58. A 1 in 100 dilution of a water sample is made. One quarter (0.25) mL of the dilution is spread over the surface of an agar plate. After incubation, 80 bacterial colonies are counted on the plate. What was the concentration of bacteria in the original water sample?

A. 200 CFUs/mL

B. 320 CFUs/mL

C. 2000 CFUs/mL

D. 32000 CFUs/mL

D. 32000 CFUs/mL

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40. Sheep blood agar contains whole red blood cells, which some bacteria are able to lyse as they grow on the plate. Bacteria that are able to lyse the cells create clear halos around their colonies, while bacteria that are not able to lyse the cells don't. Based on this information, sheep blood agar can be classified as:

A. selective

B. differential

C. both selective and differential

D. neither selective nor differential

B. differential

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41. Explain why picking one bacterial colony that is not touching any other colony from a plate ensures you have a single type of organism.

Each colony originates from a single bacterial cell. When colonies are well-separated, the chance of contamination or mixing of different bacterial types is minimized, guaranteeing genetic uniformity within that specific colony. Simplifies the identification and study of that particular organism.

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42. In what phase of culture growth are most of the bacteria alive, healthy, and dividing?

organism wo "contamination".

A. lag

B. log

C. stationary

D. death

B. log

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43. Which method of counting bacteria involves spreading your sample on an agar plate, incubating the plate, and counting the colonies that appear?

A. Counting Chamber

B. Filtration

C. Most Probable Number

D. Plate Counts

D. Plate Counts

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44. Which method of estimating bacterial populations measures the amount of light that gets scattered as it passes through a liquid containing bacteria?

A. Dry weight

B. Metabolic activity

C. Tubidometry/nephelometry

C. Tubidometry/nephelometry

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45 (extra credit). A 1 in 10 dilution of a water sample is made. One half (0.5) mL of the dilution is spread over the surface of an agar plate. After incubation, 50 bacterial colonies are counted on the plate. What was the concentration of bacteria in the original water sample?

A. 25 CFUs/mL

B. 100 CFUs/mL

C. 250 CFUs/mL

D. 1000 CFUs/mL

D. 1000 CFUs/mL

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33. Which of the following prevents an enzyme from catalyzing any reaction by binding to the

A. A competitive inhibitor

B. A noncompetitive inhibitor

A. A competitive inhibitor

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34. A microorganism converts one mole of glucose into two moles of pyruvate using the glycolysis pathway.

(A) Name the two options that the organism now has for further metabolizing the pyruvate

1) Krebs Cycle & Electron Transport Chain

2) Fermentation

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An organism that obtains its ATP by breaking chemical bonds, and its carbon from pre-existing organisms is classified as a(n)

A. Chemoautotroph

B. Chemoheterotroph

C. Photoautotroph

D. Photoheterotroph

B. Chemoheterotroph

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36. An organism the grows best around 60°C is described as a(n):

A. Psychrophile

B. Psychrotroph

C. Mesophile

D Thermophile

E. Hyperthermophile

D Thermophile

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37. Explain why increasing the osmotic pressure in a food product prevents spoilage.

Increasing the osmotic pressure in a food product creates an environment where water moves out of microorganisms via osmosis, causing dehydration and inhibiting their growth. This dehydration prevents the microorganisms from thriving and spoiling the food due to the unfavorable conditions for their survival.

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38. An organism such as Pseudomonas aeruginosa, which can only grow if oxygen is present in

the atmosphere, is described as a(n):

A. obligate aerobe

B. microaerophile

C. facultative anaerobe

D aerotolerant anaerobe

E. obligate anaerobe

F. capnophile

A. obligate aerobe

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39. Explain what a "biofilm" is and describe how biofilms provide a survival advantage for microorganisms.

Biofilms offer microorganisms protection from environmental stresses, antibiotics, and the immune system due to the matrix providing a shield against external factors, promoting nutrient availability, and enabling cooperative interactions among the microbial community for survival.

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28. A network of proteins that helps maintain cell shape, helps move substances within the cell, and facilitates cell division is called the:

A. cytoplasm

B. cytoskeleton

C. endoplasmic reticulum

D. ribosome

B. cytoskeleton

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29. A network of membranes inside eukaryotic cells which synthesizes lipids (including phospholipids and sterols) is called:

A. endoplasmic reticulum (rough)

B.endoplasmic reticulum (smooth)

C. Golgi body

D. lysosome

B.endoplasmic reticulum (smooth)

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30. A membrane-bound compartment that contains activated digestive enzymes is called a(n):

A. centrosome

B. Golgi body

C. lysosome

D. peroxisome

E. vacuole

C. lysosome

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31. Your colleague discovers a new kind of microorganism. He tells you it is a prokaryote. You can conclude that the organism (choose all that apply):

A. Definitely has pili

B. Might have pili

C. Definitely does not have pili

D. Definitely has flagella

E. Might have flagella

F. Definitely does not have flagella

G. Definitely has a cell wall

H. Might have a cell wall

I. Definitely does not have a cell wall

B. Might have pili

E. Might have flagella

G. Definitely has a cell wall

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32. Some enzymes require a separate molecule, that's not a protein, to join it in order to be active. This molecule is called a(n):

A. Active site

B. Apoenzyme

C. Coenzyme

D. Cofactor

E. Holoenzyme

F. Inhibitor

G. Proenzyme

H. Substrate

C. Coenzyme

D. Cofactor

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22. A structure possessed by some bacteria, which is outside of the cell wall, and made up of polysaccharides that are firmly attached to the cell, and which provide protection from phagocytosis, is a(n):

A. capsule

B. fimbriae

C. outer membrane

D. slime layer

A. capsule

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23. Small, stiff structures possessed by some bacteria which stick out from the cell and help it attach to surfaces are called:

A. glycocalyx

B. fimbriae

C. flagella

D. pili

B. fimbriae

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24. Complexes of RNA and protein which synthesize new proteins are called:

A. nucleoids

B. nuclei

C. plasmids

D. ribosomes

D. ribosomes

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25. A bacterium whose cell wall consists of a thin layer of peptidoglycan and has a membrane outside of the cell wall is:

A. gram-positive

B. gram-negative

B. gram-negative

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26. Which bacteria lack cell walls?

A. Gram-positive

B. Gram-negative

C. Mycobacteria spp.

D. Mycoplasma spp.

D. Mycoplasma spp.

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27. Short, thin, flexible structures possessed by some eukaryotic cells, which bend and wave to propel the cell through liquid, or propel liquid past the cell, are called:

A. cilia

B. fimbriae

C. flagella

D. pili

A. cilia

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17. Below, the steps of the gram stain process are listed. In the blank next to each step, write numbers to indicate the order in which it should be performed:

__ Apply acetone-alcohol

__ Apply crystal violet

__ Apply gram's iodine

__ Apply safranin

3 Apply acetone-alcohol

1 Apply crystal violet

2 Apply gram's iodine

4 Apply safranin

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18. At the end of the gram-stain process, gram-negative bacteria appear:

A. Brown

B. Clear

C. Purple

D. Reddish-pink

D. Reddish-pink

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19. I am a single-celled organism that has a circular chromosome, no nucleus, no mitochondria, and does not undergo mitosis or meiosis. I have ribosomes; they are 70S size. I am a(n):

A. Eukaryote

B. Prokaryote

B. Prokaryote

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20. Classify each of the following as pertaining to eukaryotes (write "E" in the blank), prokaryotes (write "p" in the blank), or both eukaryotes and prokaryotes (write both "E" and

"P" in the blank).

__ Mitochondria

__ Nucleus

__ Ribosomes

__ 80S ribosomes

__ Mitosis

__ Binary fission

__ Circular chromosome

E Mitochondria

E Nucleus

EP Ribosomes

E 80S ribosomes

E Mitosis

P Binary fission

P Circular chromosome

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21. The cells drawn below have what shape and arrangement?

(group of circles)

A. diplococcus

B. tetrad

C. streptococcus

D. staphylococcus

E. diplobacilli

F. streptobacilli

G. coccobacilli

D. staphylococcus

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12. Which microscopy technique uses visible light, captures rays that pass directly through the specimen, and produces a dark image on a light background?

A. Brightfield

B. Confocal

C. Darkfield

D. Fluorescence

E. Phase-contrast

A. Brightfield

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13. Which microscopy technique shines UV light on the specimen and captures visible light waves that are emitted from excited molecules of dye, producing bright-colored images on a dark background?

A. Brightfield

B. Confocal

C. Darkfield

D. Fluorescence

E. Phase-contrast

D. Fluorescence

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14. Which microscopy technique passes a beam of electrons at an oblique angle to the specimen, producing 3D-like images of the specimen's surface?

A. Confocal

B. Scanning Electron

C. Scanned Probe

D. Transmission Electron

B. Scanning Electron

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15. "Fixing" a specimen to a microscope slide accomplishes what (choose all that apply)?

A. Kills live microbes

B. Makes microbes stick to the slide

C. Inactivates microbial enzymes that would destroy its structure

D. Makes the microbes easier to see

A. Kills live microbes

B. Makes microbes stick to the slide

C. Inactivates microbial enzymes that would destroy its structure

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16. In a differential stain, a substance that removes stain from some of the bacteria is called a(n):

A. Counterstain

B. Decolorizer

C. Differential stain

D. Mordant

E. Primary stain

F. Simple stain

B. Decolorizer

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7. Which early microbiologist, working in the 1600s and 1700s, is credited with first viewing living microorganisms?

A. Robert Hooke

B. Robert Koch

C. Anton von Leuweenhoek

D. Louis Pasteur

C. Anton von Leuweenhoek

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8. (10 points) Starting with Redi's experiment with maggot-infested meat and finishing with Pasteur's experiment with the swan-necked flasks, describe the experiments by which it was proved that organisms arise from previously existing organisms rather than nonliving matter.

For each experiment, identify how it supported biogenesis, and also (if applicable) the gaps or weaknesses that allowed supporters of spontaneous generation to criticize it.

Redi's experiment in the 17th century involved placing meat in both open and sealed containers. Maggots appeared only on the exposed meat, not on the sealed ones, showing that maggots came from flies laying eggs on the meat, supporting biogenesis. Critics argued that air couldn't reach the sealed containers, leaving a gap in Redi's experiment.

Moving forward, Louis Pasteur's experiment in the 19th century involved swan-necked flasks containing broth that remained free of microbial growth despite exposure to air. When the flask necks were broken, allowing air in, microbial growth occurred. This supported biogenesis by demonstrating that microorganisms came from the air, not spontaneously from the broth. Critics questioned if some vital force was destroyed by Pasteur's boiling, leaving a potential gap for spontaneous generation arguments.

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9. The last step is proving that a specific microorganism causes a particular disease is:

A. Find the suspect microorganism in all the sick animals but none of the healthy ones

B. Grow the suspect microorganism in pure culture

C. Inoculate healthy animals with the suspect microorganism and see them develop the same symptoms as the original sick animals

B. Grow the suspect microorganism in pure culture

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10. A certain virus is 50 nanometers in diameter. Express this measurement in micrometers.

A, 0.05 um

B. 0.5 um

C. 500 um

D. 50000 um

A, 0.05 um

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11. Which resolving power gives you a clearer image?

A. 10 nm

B. 20 nm

A. 10 nm

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The best definition of "microorganism" is:

A. An organism that causes disease

B. An organism that is too small to be seen without a microscope

C. An organism that is too small to be seen without a microscope OR a nonliving infectious particle

D. An organism that lives by taking nutrients from another organism

C. An organism that is too small to be seen without a microscope OR a nonliving infectious particle

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2. Which of the following is formatted correctly?

A.Vibrio cholerae

B. Vibrio Cholerae

C. vibrio cholerae

D. Vibrio cholerae

A.Vibrio cholerae

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3. In scientific (binomial) nomenclature, a species is designated by:

A. The first word of the name

B.The second word of the name

C. Both the first and second words of the name together

D. Either the first or the second word of the name

C. Both the first and second words of the name together

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4. Which of the following would be considered a "transient colonizer" microbe (choose all that apply)?

A species of bacteria that was found on your skin every time you tested it

B. A species of bacteria that was found in your stool once, but never again

C. A virus that was found in your stool every time you tested it

D. A yeast that was found in your mouth once, but never again

E. A species of bacteria that is currently causing you to have pneumonia

B. A species of bacteria that was found in your stool once, but never again

D. A yeast that was found in your mouth once, but never again

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99

5. List three ways that microorganisms benefit Earth's ecosystem and/or human industry or medicine

1) Clean up pollutants

2) Beer/Wine Industry (Fermentation)

3) Makes medicines like penicillin

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6. Which of the following are eukaryotic cellular life forms (choose all that apply)?

A. Algae

B. Archaea

C. Bacteria

D. Fungi

E) Helminths

F. Protozoa

A. Algae

D. Fungi

E) Helminths

F. Protozoa

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