MICROBIOLOGY -1 reviewer (evaluative)

Who is known for the use of phenol in surgery?

Joseph Lister

Who develioped agar media?

Fannie Hesse

Who coined the term "animalcules?"

Antony van Leeuwenhoek

Who was Robert Koch's mentor?

Jacob Henle

Which two scientists were credited with the original isolation of HIV?

Montagnier and Gallo

List Koch's postulates.

1. The microorganism must be present in every diseased case but absent in healthy organisms

2. The suspect microorganism must be isolated and grown in pure culture.

3. When a healthy host is inoculated with the isolated microorganism the same disease must result.

4. The same microorganism must be reisolated from the diseased host.

What experiments were significant in proving that microbial growth did not arise spontaneously and that microorganisms from air could contaminate sterile medium?

Pasteur's swan neck flask experiments

Who developed the first successful human vaccine; what was it for?

Jenner; small pox

Describe Pasteur's "attenuated" vaccine for rabies...

live, non virulent virus that could not cause disease

Name the domains established by Carl Woese

Archaea, Bacteria, Eucarya

What is Woese's universal phylogenetic tree based on?

ribosomal RNA

What are "molecular" Koch's postulates used for?

to identify virulence genes of a pathogen

Why does light bend through a prism

b/c air has a lower refractive index than glass

What could a differential interference contrast microscope be used for?

living, unstained cells

What happens to the working distance as a lens comes into contact with a slide?

it decreases

Gram stains differentiates bacteria based on differences in what structure?

cell wall

Acid fast stain differentiates bacteria based on what structure?

lipid content in cell wall

T/F: Acridine orange is a fluorochrome stain that stains DNA

true

T/F: DAPI is a fluorochrome stain for DNA

true

What type of wavelengths do fluorescence microscopes use?

UV, violet, or blue

What part of a prokaryote functions as a site of critical metabolic processes as well as a physical barrier from the environment

plasma membrane

Define nucleoid

coiled and looped DNA

1. allow bacteria to float at correct depth

2. have membranes impervious to water.

3. have a membrane composed of GsvA.

gas vesicles in bacteria

T/F: Exoenzymes are commonly secreted by gram positive bacteria

true

T/F: the peptidoglycan of gram positive bacteria consist of direct crosslinkings between subunits

false

3 things found in cell wall of gram positive bacteria

thick peptidoglycan layer, techoic acids, thin periplasm

T/F: Lysosyme will only work against the cell wall of gram negative bacteria

false

Which is more permeable to small molecules; outer membrane or plasma membrane

outer membrane

What do magnetosomes do?

orient bacteria to the magnetic field

List 3 things that assist with motility in bacteria

slime layers, flagella, fimbriae

flagellar arrangement with multiple flagella spread over one side

lophotrichous

What are endospores resistant to?

dessication, heat, radiation

T/F: the plasma membrane of prokaryotes typically contain a variety of lipids, including phospholipids and spingolipids.

false

What structures are the key feature in eukaryotic cytoskeletons?

intermediate filaments

eukaryotic organelles that can destroy bacteria

lysosomes

T/F: ER is the main site of lysosome synthesis.

true

Requires reduced inorganic molecules

chemolithoautotroph

adding beef extract would change a defined medium into...

complex medium

Of the following cultures: blood agar, eosin mehtylene blue, macconkey agar, mannitol salt agar, and tryptic soy agar; which could be used to select for E coli from a mixed culture

eosin methylene blue and macconkey agar

media that allows for the growth of certain bacteria while inhibiting others

selective media

on a growth curve where would balanced growth occur

flat line area

T/F: A fermentor allows for a continuous culture of bacteria

false

what type of activity is the breakdown of cellular components?

catabolic

T/F: A protein with a prosthetic group forms a holoenzyme.

true

Name 3 pathways used to breakdown glucose into pyruvate

embden-myerhof parnas, entner-duoderoff, pentose phosphate

T/F: The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is not needed for the continued viability of bacteria that grow strictly under aerobic conditions

false

What determines which pathway is used in the ETC?

oxygen content

What is used to form ATP by ATP synthases

proton motive force

Name 3 types of carbohydrate fermentation

lactate, ethanol, mixed acid

food borne bacterium that can affect pregnant women and cause miscarriage

listeria

removal of solids occurs at which stage of wastewater treatment

primary treatment

T/F: Bioremediation involves using microorganisms to convert toxic molecules into nontoxic molecules

true

Several major brands of beer are ____ rather than pasteurized to better preserve the flavor and aroma of the original product

filtered

4 step degradation process of dairy products

degradation of lactic acid by yeasts and molds; activation of protein degrading bacteria; acid production by lactococcus lactis; acid production by acid tolerant bacteria

treatment process that mimics natural streams and rivers

trickling filter

T/F: Microbes that have been previously exposed to the chemical typically have a higher degradative rate due to acclimation

True

Where is it thought that E coli O157:H7 acquired its enterohemorrhagic genes from?

shigella

What does GRAS stand for?

Generally recognized as safe

3 things that must be done in order to stimulate biodegradation

1. stimulate biodegradative activities of microbes present at contaminated site; 2. supply the limiting nutrient to the contaminated site; 3. supply an additional carbon and energy source to contaminated site

irradiation that best penetrates food

raddapertization

what can be added to canned foods to prevent spoiling

nisin

toxin considered carcinogen...can interacalate into DNA and cause frameshift mutations

aflatoxin

T/F: Bioaugmentation does not involve adding more microbes to the contaminated site

False

T/F: Home treatment systems, such as septic tanks, are an excellent way to treat wastewater as these systems have a lower probability of failing

false

T/F: The BOD of wastewater after the tertiary treatment is greater than the BOD of wastewater after the primary stage of treatment

false

T/F: Fruits and veggies go through the same four step spoilage process as milk

false

How does tetanospasmin function?

cleaves SNARE proteins

What does tetanospasmin block?

inhibitory neurotransmitter release

Describe secondary syphillis

disseminated macular, papular, and pustular rash; flu like, lesion on vulva

What antibiotic is most useful for secondary syphilis?

penicillin

Typhoid fever is a result of colonization of what organ?

gallbladder

T/F: typhoid fever is localized to the gut?

false

How does legionellosis manifest itself

bronchopneumonia

most common means of disease transmission in developed world

inhalation of infectious aerosols

symptoms of plague by flea bite

painful, enlarged lymph nodes in groin, purpuric lesions on skin, pneumonia, bloody sputum

T/F: Scalded skin syndrome is caused by streptococcus pyogenes

false

List 4 diseases caused by streptococcus pyogenes

necrotizing faciitis, cellulitis, pharyngitis, impetigo

symptoms of primary tuberculosis

cell mediated immune response; flu like symptoms, activated macrophages

symptoms of borelia burgdorferi

tick bite; macular lesion; target shaped rash; flu like; arthritis; bell's palsy; years later...personality/Alzheimer's

Describe endotoxic shock

macrophages become activated by released LPS; disseminated clotting from platelet activation causes tissue ischemia; necrotic tissue damage; release of prostaglandins, leukotrienes; refractory hypotension/hypoperfusion of tissue; myocardial dysfunction

acts as a superantigen, activation immune response in toxic shock syndrome

toxin-1

What does the anthrax subunit EF do?

activates adenylate cyclase, causing fluid accumulation

What does the anthrax subunit LF do?

inhibits a transcriptional activator

symptoms of rocky mountain spotted fever

headache, fever, hemorrhagic rash (ankles, wrists...spreads to trunk; no bacteria

two causes of pelvic inflammatory disease

neisseria gonorrheae; chlamydia trachomatis

most recently emergent pathogen

vancomycin resistant staphylococcus aureus

inflammation caused by immunological cross reactivity of anti streptococcal antibodies to human tissue results in

rheumatic fever

symptoms/ signs of lepromatous leprosy

leonine face; loss of sensation in hands; abundant acid fast bacteria in biopsied tissue; tissue and bone resorption;

4 components of tubercle

macrophages; lymphocytes; fibin; mycobacterium tuberculosis

causes aseptic mengitis

neurotropic virus

Diptheria toxin is encoded on

a prophage

diphteria toxin's toxic effect is...

inhibition of protein synthesis