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Who is known for the use of phenol in surgery?
Joseph Lister
Who develioped agar media?
Fannie Hesse
Who coined the term "animalcules?"
Antony van Leeuwenhoek
Who was Robert Koch's mentor?
Jacob Henle
Which two scientists were credited with the original isolation of HIV?
Montagnier and Gallo
List Koch's postulates.
The microorganism must be present in every diseased case but absent in healthy organisms
The suspect microorganism must be isolated and grown in pure culture.
When a healthy host is inoculated with the isolated microorganism the same disease must result.
The same microorganism must be reisolated from the diseased host.
What experiments were significant in proving that microbial growth did not arise spontaneously and that microorganisms from air could contaminate sterile medium?
Pasteur's swan neck flask experiments
Who developed the first successful human vaccine; what was it for?
Jenner; small pox
Describe Pasteur's "attenuated" vaccine for rabies...
live, non virulent virus that could not cause disease
Name the domains established by Carl Woese
Archaea, Bacteria, Eucarya
What is Woese's universal phylogenetic tree based on?
ribosomal RNA
What are "molecular" Koch's postulates used for?
to identify virulence genes of a pathogen
Why does light bend through a prism
b/c air has a lower refractive index than glass
What could a differential interference contrast microscope be used for?
living, unstained cells
What happens to the working distance as a lens comes into contact with a slide?
it decreases
Gram stains differentiates bacteria based on differences in what structure?
cell wall
Acid fast stain differentiates bacteria based on what structure?
lipid content in cell wall
T/F: Acridine orange is a fluorochrome stain that stains DNA
true
T/F: DAPI is a fluorochrome stain for DNA
true
What type of wavelengths do fluorescence microscopes use?
UV, violet, or blue
What part of a prokaryote functions as a site of critical metabolic processes as well as a physical barrier from the environment
plasma membrane
Define nucleoid
coiled and looped DNA
allow bacteria to float at correct depth
have membranes impervious to water.
have a membrane composed of GsvA.
gas vesicles in bacteria
T/F: Exoenzymes are commonly secreted by gram positive bacteria
true
T/F: the peptidoglycan of gram positive bacteria consist of direct crosslinkings between subunits
false
3 things found in cell wall of gram positive bacteria
thick peptidoglycan layer, techoic acids, thin periplasm
T/F: Lysosyme will only work against the cell wall of gram negative bacteria
false
Which is more permeable to small molecules; outer membrane or plasma membrane
outer membrane
What do magnetosomes do?
orient bacteria to the magnetic field
List 3 things that assist with motility in bacteria
slime layers, flagella, fimbriae
flagellar arrangement with multiple flagella spread over one side
lophotrichous
What are endospores resistant to?
dessication, heat, radiation
T/F: the plasma membrane of prokaryotes typically contain a variety of lipids, including phospholipids and spingolipids.
false
What structures are the key feature in eukaryotic cytoskeletons?
intermediate filaments
eukaryotic organelles that can destroy bacteria
lysosomes
T/F: ER is the main site of lysosome synthesis.
true
Requires reduced inorganic molecules
chemolithoautotroph
adding beef extract would change a defined medium into...
complex medium
Of the following cultures: blood agar, eosin mehtylene blue, macconkey agar, mannitol salt agar, and tryptic soy agar; which could be used to select for E coli from a mixed culture
eosin methylene blue and macconkey agar
media that allows for the growth of certain bacteria while inhibiting others
selective media
on a growth curve where would balanced growth occur
flat line area
T/F: A fermentor allows for a continuous culture of bacteria
false
what type of activity is the breakdown of cellular components?
catabolic
T/F: A protein with a prosthetic group forms a holoenzyme.
true
Name 3 pathways used to breakdown glucose into pyruvate
embden-myerhof parnas, entner-duoderoff, pentose phosphate
T/F: The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is not needed for the continued viability of bacteria that grow strictly under aerobic conditions
false
What determines which pathway is used in the ETC?
oxygen content
What is used to form ATP by ATP synthases
proton motive force
Name 3 types of carbohydrate fermentation
lactate, ethanol, mixed acid
food borne bacterium that can affect pregnant women and cause miscarriage
listeria
removal of solids occurs at which stage of wastewater treatment
primary treatment
T/F: Bioremediation involves using microorganisms to convert toxic molecules into nontoxic molecules
true
Several major brands of beer are ____ rather than pasteurized to better preserve the flavor and aroma of the original product
filtered
4 step degradation process of dairy products
degradation of lactic acid by yeasts and molds; activation of protein degrading bacteria; acid production by lactococcus lactis; acid production by acid tolerant bacteria
treatment process that mimics natural streams and rivers
trickling filter
T/F: Microbes that have been previously exposed to the chemical typically have a higher degradative rate due to acclimation
True
Where is it thought that E coli O157:H7 acquired its enterohemorrhagic genes from?
shigella
What does GRAS stand for?
Generally recognized as safe
3 things that must be done in order to stimulate biodegradation
stimulate biodegradative activities of microbes present at contaminated site; 2. supply the limiting nutrient to the contaminated site; 3. supply an additional carbon and energy source to contaminated site
irradiation that best penetrates food
raddapertization
what can be added to canned foods to prevent spoiling
nisin
toxin considered carcinogen...can interacalate into DNA and cause frameshift mutations
aflatoxin
T/F: Bioaugmentation does not involve adding more microbes to the contaminated site
False
T/F: Home treatment systems, such as septic tanks, are an excellent way to treat wastewater as these systems have a lower probability of failing
false
T/F: The BOD of wastewater after the tertiary treatment is greater than the BOD of wastewater after the primary stage of treatment
false
T/F: Fruits and veggies go through the same four step spoilage process as milk
false
How does tetanospasmin function?
cleaves SNARE proteins
What does tetanospasmin block?
inhibitory neurotransmitter release
Describe secondary syphillis
disseminated macular, papular, and pustular rash; flu like, lesion on vulva
What antibiotic is most useful for secondary syphilis?
penicillin
Typhoid fever is a result of colonization of what organ?
gallbladder
T/F: typhoid fever is localized to the gut?
false
How does legionellosis manifest itself
bronchopneumonia
most common means of disease transmission in developed world
inhalation of infectious aerosols
symptoms of plague by flea bite
painful, enlarged lymph nodes in groin, purpuric lesions on skin, pneumonia, bloody sputum
T/F: Scalded skin syndrome is caused by streptococcus pyogenes
false
List 4 diseases caused by streptococcus pyogenes
necrotizing faciitis, cellulitis, pharyngitis, impetigo
symptoms of primary tuberculosis
cell mediated immune response; flu like symptoms, activated macrophages
symptoms of borelia burgdorferi
tick bite; macular lesion; target shaped rash; flu like; arthritis; bell's palsy; years later...personality/Alzheimer's
Describe endotoxic shock
macrophages become activated by released LPS; disseminated clotting from platelet activation causes tissue ischemia; necrotic tissue damage; release of prostaglandins, leukotrienes; refractory hypotension/hypoperfusion of tissue; myocardial dysfunction
acts as a superantigen, activation immune response in toxic shock syndrome
toxin-1
What does the anthrax subunit EF do?
activates adenylate cyclase, causing fluid accumulation
What does the anthrax subunit LF do?
inhibits a transcriptional activator
symptoms of rocky mountain spotted fever
headache, fever, hemorrhagic rash (ankles, wrists...spreads to trunk; no bacteria
two causes of pelvic inflammatory disease
neisseria gonorrheae; chlamydia trachomatis
most recently emergent pathogen
vancomycin resistant staphylococcus aureus
inflammation caused by immunological cross reactivity of anti streptococcal antibodies to human tissue results in
rheumatic fever
symptoms/ signs of lepromatous leprosy
leonine face; loss of sensation in hands; abundant acid fast bacteria in biopsied tissue; tissue and bone resorption;
4 components of tubercle
macrophages; lymphocytes; fibin; mycobacterium tuberculosis
causes aseptic mengitis
neurotropic virus
Diptheria toxin is encoded on
a prophage
diphteria toxin's toxic effect is...
inhibition of protein synthesis
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