Nucleic Acid Inhibitors - SING - EXAM 4

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38 Terms

1
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Names and generations of Fluoroquinolones:

  • Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)- gen 2

  • Levofloxacin (Levaquin)- gen 3

  • Moxifloxacin- gen 3

  • Delafloxacin (Baxdela)- gen 4

2
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RENAL ADJUSTMENTS:

  • Which fluoroquinolone does NOT require renal dose adjustment?

  • Does Bactrim require renal dose adjustment?

  • Does Flagyl require renal dose adjustment?

  • Do the rifamycins require renal dose adjustment?

  • FQ w/ no adjustments—> Moxifloxacin

  • Bactrim—> yes

  • Flagyl—> no

  • Rifamycins—>no

3
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List the sulfonamide:

sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim (Bactrim)

4
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List the Rifamycins:

  • Rifampin

  • Rifabutin

  • Rifapentine

  • Rifaximin

  • Rifamycin

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List the nitroimidazole:

metronidazole

6
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Describe the MOA of each of the following:

  • Fluoroquinolones

  • Sulfonamides

  • Metronidazole

  • Rifamycins

  • Fluoroquinolones—> inhibit Top II and Top IV, prevents supercoiling, breaks DNA

  • Sulfonamides—> inhibit folic acid pathway by inhibiting Dihydropteroate Synthase and Dihydrofolate Reductase= no DNA

  • Metronidazole—> diffuses across cell membranes where it is activated and causes breakages in DNA strands

  • Rifamycins—> inhibits bacterial RNA synthesis by inhibiting RNA polymerase

7
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List each as bacteriostatic or cidal:

  • Fluoroquinolones

  • Sulfonamides

  • Metronidazole

  • Rifamycins

ALL bactericidal

  • sulfonamides/bactrim—> bacteriostatic alone, bactericidal TOGETHER

8
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Time, conc, or AUC:MIC dependent?

  • Fluoroquinolones

  • Sulfonamides

  • Fluoroquinolones—> conc-dependent

  • Sulfonamides—> time-dependent

9
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Spectrum of FLUOROQUINOLONES:

  • which covers “respiratory pathogens” (S. pneumoniae, atypicals)

  • which covers pseudomonas?

  • which covers MRSA?

  • which covers anaerobes?

  • which covers mainly G-, w/ little G+?

  • respiratory pathogens—> M,L

  • pseudomonas—> all but M (DLC)

  • MRSA? D

  • anaerobes? M

  • mainly G-, little G+—> C

(I use the 1st letter of each fluoroquinolone, easier to remember… ex: C= ciprofloxacin)

10
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Spectrum of SULFONAMIDES (BACTRIM):

  • What G+?

  • What G-?

    • DOC?

  • What non-bacterial pathogens?

  • G+ : MRSA

  • G- : enteric G-

    • DOC: S. maltphilia

  • non-bacterial:

    • toxoplasma gondii (parasite)

    • pneumocystis jjovecii (fungus)

11
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Spectrum of METRONIDAZOLE:

  • ONLY COVERS WHAT KIND OF BACTERIA?

  • What non-bacterial pathogens?

  • ONLY COVERS ANAEROBES

  • covers protozoa

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Spectrum of RIFAMYCINS:

  • What 1 atypical?

  • What 1 G+?

  • What 1 G-?

  • Which covers e.coli?

  • atypical: mycobacteria

  • G+ : S. aureus

  • G- : N. meninigitis

  • e.coli—> rifaximin

13
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Should rifampin be used as monotherapy? why?

no—> bc of resistance

14
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Uses of FLUOROQUINOLONES:

  • Which for CAP?

  • Which NOT for UTI?

  • Which for IAIs as monotherapy?

  • for CAP—> M, D, L

  • NOT for UTI—> M, D

  • for IAIs—> M

15
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Uses of SULFONAMIDES (BACTRIM):

  • Bactrim is used for what type of UTI and SSTI?

  • What opportunistic infections?

  • used for uncomplicated UTI, outpatient SSTI

  • opportunistic infections—> T. gondii encephalitis and pneumocystis pneumonia

    • they cover the fungus/parasite talked about in spectrum

16
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Uses of METRONIDAZOLE:

  • used to combo to treat what?

  • What STIs?

  • in penicillin allergy, can be used in combo for what?

  • used in combo for IAIs

  • STIs—> bacterial vaginosis, PID, Trichomoniasis

  • in pen allergy used in combo for H. PYLORI

17
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Uses of RIFAMYCINS:

  • Which is used in prosthetic infections for Staph coverage?

  • Are used in 2,3, or 4 drug combos for?

  • Rifampin is used for prophylaxis against what?

  • Which are used for traveler’s diarrhea and hepatic encephalopathy?

  • prosthetic infections—> Rifampin

  • used in 2,3, or 4 combos for tuberculosis

  • Rifampin pro—> meningococcal

  • Traveler’s diarrhea, hepatic encephalopathy—> Rifaximin, Rifamycin

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Which class has a BBW for tendonitis and tendon rupture?

fluoroquinolones

19
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Which agent has a BBW for possible carcinogenic properties?

metronidazole

20
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Which class(es) cause QTc prolongation?

fluoroquinolones

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Which agent may cause a disulfiram-like reaction when co-administered with alcohol?

How long should patients be counseled to avoid alcohol?

  • METRONIDAZOLE

    • counsel: avoid alcohol DURING therapy and 3 days after d/c

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What agent can cause red-orange discoloration of body fluids?

What should you counsel a patient on regarding this?

  • rifampin

    • counsel: remove soft contact lenses to prevent staining permanently

23
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Which class(es) cause photosensitivity?

fluoroquinolones

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Which class(es) can be hepatotoxic?

  • rifamycins

  • fluoroquinolones

  • METRONIDAZOLE

25
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What agent can cause neuropathies (peripheral and optic) and a metallic taste?

METRONIDAZOLE

26
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Which class(es) cause dysglycemia?

fluoroquinolones

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Which class(es) can be teratogenic?

  • Which can cause neural tube defects?

  • Which can cause kernicterus?

    • Who should you avoid this in?

  • teratogenic—> fluoroquinolones

  • neural tube defects? SMX/TMP

  • Kernicterus? SMX/TMP

    • avoid in neonates

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Which class(es) can cause severe blood dyscrasias?

SMX/TMP

29
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This class can commonly cause rash (allergy) and rarely severe derm reactions (SJS/TEN)

  • Can you challenge a patient with an allergy?

  • SMX/TMP

    • CANNOT challenge

30
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Which class(es) cause hyperkalemia and crystalluria?

  • What should you counsel a patient to do to reduce this risk?

  • SMX/TMP

    • counsel: avoid other drugs that cause hyperkalemia, TAKE with >/= 8 oz of water

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Which class has a BBW for exacerbation of myasthenia gravis?

Fluoroquinolones

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Which class had a published safety alert for risk of aortic dissection or rupture?

  • Who is at risk for this and therefore should avoid these agents?

  • Fluoroquinolones

    • who is at risk? pts. with an existing aortic aneurysm or in pts. with an existing risk of that (peripheral vascular disease, HTN, blood genetic disorders)

33
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Which class(es) can chelate with multivalent cations, thus decreasing absorption? What can you do to mitigate this?

fluoroquinolones—> avoid 2hrs before, 4-8 hrs after

34
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Which agents can significantly increase warfarin effect/INR?

  • SMX/TMP

  • Metronidazole

35
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Which agent can increase hypoglycemic effects of sulfonylureas?

SMX/TMP

36
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What class are potent CYP450 inducers?

  • Because of this they should not be co-administered with what class of drug?

    •   Which agent is preferred if no other option, d/t less potent induction?

  • RIFAMYCINS

    • cannot co-administer with PROTEASE INHIBITORS

    • less potent interactions w/ Rifabutin

37
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REVIEW:

Which nucleic acid inhibitors cover P. aeruginosa?

  • Ciprofloxacin

  • Levofloxacin

  • Delafloxacin

38
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REVIEW:

Which nucleic acid inhibitors cover MRSA?

  • Delafloxacin

  • SMX/TMP (BACTRIM)